14th National Voters’ Day (NVD) to be celebrated on 25th January 2024.

• Election Commission of India is celebrating 14th National Voters’ Day (NVD) on 25th January 2024.
• National Voters’ Day (NVD) has been celebrated on January 25 every year since 2011, across the country to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India, i.e. 25th January 1950.
• Purpose: The main purpose of the NVD celebration is to create electoral awareness amongst citizens and encourage them to participate in the electoral process.
• Dedicated to the voters of the country, the National Voters'' Day is also used to facilitate enrolment of voters, especially the newly eligible young voters.
• New voters are felicitated and handed over their Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC) in the NVD functions held across the country.
• NVD is celebrated at the national, state, district, constituency and polling booth levels, which makes it one of the largest celebrations in the country.
• NVD 2024 theme - ‘Nothing Like Voting, I Vote For sure’
• On January 25, 2024, the Election Commission of India celebrates its 75th year of service to the Nation.

Key facts about the Election Commission of India:

• It is an autonomous and permanent constitutional body responsible for organising free and fair elections in India.
• The Constitution grants the ECI with the power of direction, superintendence, and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India, and the office of vice-president of India.
• It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates so that no one indulges in unfair practice or there is no arbitrary abuse of powers by those in power.
• Composition: The commission consists of a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs).

Powers and responsibilities ECI:

• Determining the Electoral Constituencies’ territorial areas throughout the country.
• Preparing and periodically revising electoral rolls and registering all eligible voters.
• Notifying the schedules and dates of elections and scrutinising nomination papers.
• Granting recognition to the various political parties and allocating them election symbols.
• The Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.

Shallow soda lakes show promise as cradles of life on Earth

• Scientists have discovered that a shallow "soda lake" in western Canada could be a good match for Darwin''s "warm little ponds" where life got started on the primordial Earth.
• Soda Lake is a lake with a pH value usually between 9 and 11.
• High carbonate concentration, especially sodium carbonate, is responsible for the alkalinity of the water.
• It may also contain a high concentration of sodium chloride and other salts making it saline or hypersaline Lake.
• These are highly productive ecosystems compared to the freshwater lakes.
• These are the most productive aquatic environments on Earth because of the availability of dissolved carbon dioxide.
• They occur naturally in both arid and semi-arid areas.

Geology and Genesis

• A topography that limits the outflow of water from the lake is needed.
• An endorheic basin is formed when the water is confined without the outflow.
• The pH of the water in the depression rises through the evaporation of the lake which requires a suitable climate like the desert climate to balance between the inflow and evaporation.
• The rate at which carbonate salt dissolves in the lake water depends on the ecology of the surrounding area.
• The relative absence of magnesium and calcium is critical in the formation of the soda lake since magnesium or calcium is likely to dissolve quickly and displace the carbonate ion thus neutralising the pH of the lake water.

Biodiversity

• These are dominated by prokaryotes like bacteria and archaea, especially in lakes with higher levels of alkalinity.
• Multicellular organisms such as brine shrimp and fish are found in plenty if not most of the soda lakes.

Examples of Soda Lakes

• Africa and Asia have the highest number of soda lakes since the two continents have vast desert conditions which are perfect for the formation of soda lakes.
• Most of the soda lakes in Africa are located in Eastern Africa, especially in Kenya, Tanzania, and Ethiopia.
• Lake Natron in Tanzania is one of the most outstanding soda lakes in Africa
• India and China have the highest number of soda lakes in Asia.
• Some of the soda lakes in Asia include Lake Van, Tso Kar Salt Lake, Pangong Salt Lake, and Lake Zabuye.

Albatrosses are threatened with extinction — and climate change could put their nesting sites at risk.

• Wandering albatrosses are threatened with extinction and climate change could put their nesting sites at risk.
• Wandering albatrosses is the world’s largest flying bird, with a wingspan reaching an incredible 3.5 metres.
• These birds are oceanic nomads: they spend most of their 60 years of life at sea and only come to land to breed.
• These are found almost exclusively in the Southern Hemisphere.
• Their playground is the vast Southern Ocean— the region between the latitude of 60 degrees south and the continent of Antarctica.
• Marion Island and Prince Edward Island together support about half of the entire world’s wandering albatross breeding population.
• Habitat: They breed on several subantarctic islands, which are characterised by peat soils, tussock grass, sedges, mosses, and shrubs.
• Conservation status- IUCN: Vulnerable
• Threats: The most likely cause is longline fishing, as they become hooked and will drown, as well as the ingestion of plastics, which kills both chicks and adults.

The pandemic treaty can help the world brace for Disease X: WHO Director-General

• The World Health Organisation (WHO) emphasised the urgent need for global preparedness against a potential new pandemic, referred to as ''Disease X''.
• Disease X is referred to as a hypothetical pathogen or threat that can cause a major pandemic in future.
• It could be a new agent, a virus, a bacterium, or a fungus without any known treatment.
• The term coined by scientists and the World Health Organization could be any of the 25 families of viruses that have the capability to cause illness in people.
• Disease X was included in the WHO’s updated Blueprint list of diseases back in 2018.
• Scientists are of the opinion that Disease X could be 20 times more deadly than SARS-Covid virus that caused pandemic recently.
• It represents an illness which is currently unknown but could pose a serious microbial threat to humans in the future.

Nirmala Sitharaman takes part in ‘Halwa Ceremony’ ahead of interim budget.

• The Union Finance Minister participated in the ''Halwa Ceremony'', a tradition observed before the annual budget presentation.
• Halwa Ceremony is a tradition performed every year ahead of the budget and signifies the official initiation of the printing process of various documents related to the budget.
• It involves the preparation of the traditional dessert ''halwa'' in a massive kadhai (wok), which is then served to all those who are directly associated with the budget-making process.
• The finance minister gives the go-ahead by stirring the kadhai and serving the sweet to officials.
• It takes place in the basement of the Finance Ministry''s North Block in Central Delhi, where a special printing press is located.
• It serves as a formal ‘send-off’ for the ministry officials and staff engaged in preparing the Union government''s annual financial statement.
• Subsequently, the top officials involved with the budget enter a designated ‘lock-in’ period, isolating themselves within the ministry premises and cutting off from their families to preserve the confidentiality surrounding the final budget document.
• The officials are required to stay in the Finance Ministry till the finance minister finally presents the budget.

NFRA to inspect Big 4, others in 2024 too

• The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) is going to inspect the Big Four audit firms as well as other top auditors of large listed entities in 2024.
• National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) is a statutory body constituted under Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013.
• It was established as an independent authority to regulate the auditing profession and accounting standards in India.
• Its goal is to enhance the country''s financial statement quality and consistency and to guarantee that businesses and financial institutions report accurate and fair information.

Composition:

• The Companies Act requires the NFRA to have a chairperson who will be appointed by the Central Government and a maximum of 15 members.
• The appointment of such chairperson and members are subject to the following qualifications:
• They should be having an expertise in accountancy, auditing, finance, or law.
• They are required to make a declaration to the Central Government that there is no conflict of interest or lack of independence in their appointment.
• All the members, including the chairperson, who are in full-time employment, should not be associated with any audit firm (including related consultancy firms) during their term of office and 2 years after their term.

The NFRA has the following responsibilities:

• Make recommendations on the foundation and laying down of accounting and auditing policies and standards;
• Monitor and enforce the compliance of the accounting standards and auditing standards:
• Oversee the quality of service of the professionals (such as auditors, CFOs, etc.) and suggest measures required for improvement in the quality of service;
• Perform other functions related to the above.

Powers:

• NFRA has the power to investigate, either suo moto or on a referencemade to it by the Central Government, into the matters of professional or other misconduct committed by any member or firm of chartered accountants registered under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.
• It has the same powers as are vested in a civil courtunder the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while trying a suit.
• Where professional or other misconduct is proved, it shall have the power to impose punishment.
• Any person who is not satisfied with the order of the NFRA can then make an appeal to the Appellate Authority.

Jurisdiction of NFRA:

• The jurisdiction of the NFRA for the investigation of Chartered Accountants and their firms would extend to listed companies and large unlisted public companies, the thresholds for which shall be prescribed in the Rules.
• The Central Government can also refer such other entities for investigation where public interest would be involved.
• Head Office: New Delhi

Stones with 11th century ‘Grantham’, 16th century Tamil inscriptions discovered near Kangayam in Tamil Nadu.

• A team of archaeologists recently discovered two stone inscriptions of ‘Grantham’ and Tamil dating 11th and 16th centuries respectively at Pazhnchervazhi village near Kangayam.
• Grantha is an important historical script that was once used to write Sanskrit throughout South East Asia and greater Tamil Nadu.
• The word Grantha denotes in Sanskrit ‘a literary work’. Evidently, the script used for writing the Sanskrit works obtained the same name.
• At one time, it was prevalent throughout South India.
• When the Malayalam language began to freely borrow words as well as the rules of grammar from Sanskrit, this script was adopted for writing that language and was known as Arya Ezhuthu.
• Both Grantha and Tamil scripts appear alike in modern forms. The evolution of both scripts from Brahmi was also more or less similar.
• The development of the Grantha script in Tamil Nadu may be divided into four periods. The archaic and ornamental, the transitional, the mediaeval, and the modern.
• Archaic and ornamental variety is commonly known as Pallava Grantha. Mahendravarman''s Tiruchirapalli rock cut cave and other cave temple inscriptions, Narasimhan''s Mamallapuram, Kanchi Kailashnath, and Saluvankuppam temple inscriptions, Mutharaiyar''s Senthalai inscriptions are examples of this variety.
• The transitional variety of Grantha inscriptions roughly belong to three centuries between 650 CE and 950 CE. Later Pallavas (Nandivarman''s Kasakudi, Udayendram plates, etc.) and Pandyan Nedunjadaiyan''s Anaimalai inscriptions are examples of this.
• The mediaeval variety dates from about 950 CE to 1250 CE. Inscriptions of the imperial Cholas of Thanjavur are examples of this.
• The modern variety belongs to the later Pandyas and Vijayanagar periods.
• It was popular in Tamil Nadu until the early 20th century.
• After the introduction of printing machines, many Sanskrit books transcribed from palm leaves were printed in Grantha script.
• After Independence, the popularity of Hindi in Deva Nagari script influenced all printing works, and Grantha script went out of vogue.

Default Bail Can''t Be Claimed On Ground That Investigation Is Pending Against Other Accused: Supreme Court Sets Aside Bail To Wadhwans In DHFL Case.

• The Supreme Court held that default bail cannot be claimed on the ground that the investigation is pending against other accused.
• The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) provides for three kinds of bail. Section 438 provides for Anticipatory Bail; Section 439 provides for Regular bail whereas Section 167(2) provides for default/statutory bail.
• Default bail, also known as statutory bail, is a type of bail which accrues as a right to an accused detained in custody, when the police fail to or are unable to complete the investigation and file the chargesheet within the time frame stipulated under the law.
• When a person is arrested under any section of any act, there is an obligation on the arresting authority to complete the investigation within a specified time. This period is mandatory, and not obligatory.
• The statutory time frame for completing the investigation of offences under the IPC, and for filing of the charge sheet varies depending on the gravity of the offence.
• For offences punishable with imprisonment up to 10 years, the investigation must be completed within 60 days of arrest.
• For offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for more than 10 years, the investigation must be completed within 90 days of arrest (excluding investigation/arrests made under special statutes).
• Therefore, when a person is arrested and the police are not able to complete the investigation within the specified period, it is their default, and the arrested person cannot be kept behind bars beyond this period. This entitlement is called default bail.
• This is enshrined in Section 167(2) of the CrPC, where it is not possible for the police to complete an investigation in time.

Principles:

• It is a right, regardless of the nature of the crime.
• The stipulated period within which the charge sheet has to be filed begins from the day the accused is remanded for the first time.
• It includes days spent in both police and judicial custody, but not days spent in house-arrest.
• For an accused to be entitled to default bail, the accused must have been in custody during the entire statutory period for the investigation, and the accused must not have been released on bail during that period.
• A requirement for the grant of statutory bail is that the right should be claimed by the person in custody.
• If the charge sheet is not filed within the stipulated period, but there is no application for bail under Section 167(2), there is no automatic bail.
• Once the accused files an application for bail under Section 167(2), it is considered that he/she has enforced the right to be released on default bail.
• This right only comes into place after the stipulated time limit for investigation has expired.
• If the accused fails to apply for default bail after the investigation time period has expired and the investigating agency files a charge-sheet or seeks more time before the accused makes such an application for default bail, then the right to default bail is no longer applicable. The Magistrate can then grant further time for the completion of the investigation.
• However, the accused may still be released on bail under other legal provisions of the Code.
• The default bail is not liable to be cancelled even after the completion of the investigation and the submission of the charge sheet. The default bail can be cancelled only on the grounds and considerations on which a regular bail can be cancelled.

Mere Cheating Will Not Attract S.420 IPC Offence; Accused Must Dishonestly Induce Cheated Person To Deliver Property: Supreme Court

• The Supreme Court held that while prosecuting a person for the offence of cheating under Section 420 of the IPC, it is to be seen whether the deceitful act of cheating was coupled with an inducement leading to the parting of any property by the complainant.
• Section 420 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), or IPC 420 as it is commonly known, deals with the act of cheating and dishonestly inducing the person deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to make, alter, or destroy the whole or any part of a valuable security, or anything which is signed or sealed and capable of being converted into a valuable security.
• Section 415 of the IPC defines the offence of cheating. In simpler terms, cheating is a dishonest act performed in order to gain some advantage out of it.
• Section 420 IPC is a serious form of cheating that includes inducement (to lead or move someone to happen) in terms of the delivery of property as well as valuable securities.
• This section is also applicable to matters where the destruction of property is caused by cheating or inducement.
• The person found guilty under this section shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term that may extend to seven years and shall also be liable to a fine.
• The offence is cognizable and non-bailable.
• The essential ingredients that go into the making of an offence under Section 420, IPC are:
• That the representation made by the accused was false;
• That the accused knew that the representation was false at the very time when he made it;
• That the accused made the false representation with the dishonest intention of deceiving the person to whom it was made; and
• That the accused thereby induced that person to deliver any property or to do or to omit to do something which he would otherwise not have done or omitted.