Q1. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghika , located?

(a) Andhra 

(b) Gandhara 

(c) Kalingo 

(d) Magadha

Answer: A

Dharanikota is a town near Amaravati in the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh in India, It is the site of the ancient Dhanyakataka which was the capital of the Satavahana kingdom which ruled in the Deccan around the 1st to 3rd centuries A.D. 

Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh’s Guntur district is also known as Dhanyakataka or Dharanikota and was the site of a great Buddhist Stupa built in pre-Mauryan times, ruled by Satavahana kings.

Q2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements : 

1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

Answer: B

Stupa, a Buddhist commemorative monument usually housing sacred relics associated with the Buddha or other saintly persons.  Religious buildings in the form of the Buddhist stupa, a dome shaped monument, started to be used in India as commemorative monuments associated with storing sacred relics of the Buddha.  Archaeologists in India have observed that a number of early Buddhist stupas or burials are found in the vicinity of much older, pre-historic burials, including megalithic sites. This includes site associated with the Indus Valley civilization where broken Indus-era pottery was incorporated into later Buddhist burials.

Q3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well-known as-

(a) Capital cities

(b) Ports

(c) Centres of iron-and-steel making

(d) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

Answer: (b)

Poompuhar is a town in the Mayiladuthurai district in the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It was once a flourishing ancient port city known as Kaveri Poompattinam and Kaveripattinam (not to be confused with modern Kaveripattinam), which for a while served as the capital of the early Chola kings in Tamilakam. 

Korkai was the capital, principal center of trade and important port of the Early Pandyan Kingdom. At that time, it was located on the banks of the Tamiraparani River and at the sea coast, forming a natural harbour. Due to excessive sedimentation, the sea has receded about 6 km in the past 2000 years, leaving Korkai well inland today.

Muziris found mention in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, the bardic Tamil poems and a number of classical sources.It was the major ancient port city of Cheras. Core of the city is situated in the present day Kodungallur, North Paravoor area. 

Q4. Which one of the following explains the practice of “Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?

(a) Kings employing women bodyguards.

(b) Learned persona assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters

(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals

(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Answer: D

Vatakkiruttal, also Vadakiruthal and vadakiruttal, was a Tamil ritual of fasting till death. It was especially widespread during the Sangam age. The Tamil kings, in order to save their honour, and prestige, were prepared to meet their death facing North (‘Vatakkiruttal’) and never would they turn their back in battle. It was a Tamil martial art. This was either done alone, or as a group with the supporters of the captured king.

Q5.  Consider the following dynasties:

1. Hoysala 
2. Gahadavala 
3. Kakatiya 
4. Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) None

Answer: D

The Hoysala Empire was a Kannadiga power originating from the Indian subcontinent that ruled most of what is now Karnataka between the 10th and the 14th centuries. The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur, but was later moved to Halebidu.  The Kakatiya dynasty was a Telugu dynasty that ruled most of eastern Deccan region in present-day India between the 12th and 14th centuries. Their territory comprised much of the present day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, and parts of eastern Karnataka, northern Tamil Nadu, and southern Odisha. Their capital was Orugallu, now known as Warangal.  The Seuna, Sevuna, or Yadavas of Devagiri was a Medieval Indiandynasty, which at its peak ruled a kingdom stretching from the Narmada river in the north to the Tungabhadra river in the south, in the western part of the Deccan region. The Yadavas initially ruled as feudatories of the Western Chalukyas. Around the middle of the 12th century, as the Chalukya power waned, the Yadava king Bhillama V declared independence. The Yadava kingdom reached its peak under Simhana II, and flourished until the early 14th century, when it was annexed by the Khalji dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate in 1308 CE.  The Gahadavala dynasty also Gahadavalas of Kannauj was a Rajput dynasty that ruled parts of the present-day Indian states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, during 11th and 12th centuries. Their capital was located at Banaras (now Varanasi) in the Gangetic plains, and for a brief period, they also controlled Kannauj.

Q6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs 

Literary work : Author 

1. Devi Chandragupta : Bilhana 
2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri 
3. Melinda panha : Nagarjuna 
4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four

Answer: C

Devi-Chandraguptam or Devi-Chandragupta is an Indian Sanskrit-language political drama attributed to Vishakhadeva, who is generally identified with Vishakhadatta. 

Hammira Mahakavya is a 15th-century Indian Sanskrit epic poem written by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri. 

The Milindapanho is a Buddhist text from sometime between 100 BC and 200 AD written by Nagasena. It purports to record a dialogue between the Indian Buddhist sage Nagasena, and the Indo-Greek king Menander of Bactria, who reigned in the 2nd century BC.

Nītivākyāmṛta —The Jaina writer Somadeva of tenth century A.D. writes a treatise on nīti is called Nītivākyāmṛta. He quotes fragments of the metrical works on polity attributed to Atri, Aṅgīras, Kauśika, Garga, Devala, Nārada, Parāśara, Bhāguri, Bhāradvāja, Bhṛgu, Bṛhaspati, Śukra, Vyāsa etc.

Q7. ‘Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects’. The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India? 

(a) Buddhism 

(b) Jainism 

(c) Shaivism 

(d) Vaishnavism

Answer: B

The core belief that souls are not only the property of animal and plant life but also of rocks, running water, and many other natural objects not looked upon as living things is associated with Jainism.

Jainism is an ancient Indian religion that places a strong emphasis on non-violence, compassion, and the principle of ahimsa (non-harming). One of the fundamental teachings in Jainism is the belief in the existence of souls (jivas) in all living beings, including humans, animals, and plants. However, Jain philosophy goes beyond this and extends the concept of souls to non-living entities as well, including rocks, water, and other natural objects. According to Jainism, all entities possess a soul, regardless of whether they are traditionally considered living or not.

This belief in the inherent presence of souls in various natural objects is a unique aspect of Jainism’s worldview and distinguishes it from other major Indian religions such as Buddhism, Vaishnavism, and Shaivism.

Q8. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometers long from the river to the capital city? 

(a) Devaraya I 

(b) Mallikarjuna 

(c) Vira Vijaya 

(d) Virupaksha

Answer: A

The large dam across the Tungabhadra River and the canal aqueduct several kilometers away from the capital city in the Vijayanagara Empire were constructed during the reign of King Krishna Deva Raya. Krishna Deva Raya was one of the most famous rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire, and he undertook numerous infrastructure projects to improve the irrigation and agricultural capabilities of his kingdom.

The credit for making the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire one of the biggest cities in the 15th century goes to Deva Raya I. He realized that the scarcity of water supply, both for drinking and for irrigation, was restricting the growth of the royal capital. In c.1410 he had a barrage constructed across the Tungabhadra river and commissioned a 24 km long aqueduct from the Tungabhadra river to the capital.

Q9. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese? 

(a) Ahmad Shah 

(b) Mahmud Begarha 

(c) Bahadur Shah 

(d) Muhammad Shah

Answer: C

The ruler of Gujarat who surrendered Diu to the Portuguese was Sultan Bahadur Shah. In 1535, after a long siege, Sultan Bahadur Shah was compelled to surrender the island of Diu to the Portuguese led by Nuno da Cunha. This event marked the beginning of Portuguese control and influence in the region, particularly in the maritime trade routes of the Indian Ocean.

1538 Siege of Diu resulted in the permanent occupation of Diu by Portuguese which lasted till 1961. 

Q10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

(a) The Regulating Act 

(b) The Pitt’s India Act 

(c) The Charter Act of 1793 

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Answer: D

The office of the Governor General of Bengal was designated as the Governor General of India through the Government of India Act of 1833. This act, also known as the Charter Act of 1833, was passed by the British Parliament and granted expanded powers to the Governor General of Bengal, transforming the position into the Governor General of India. Lord William Bentinck was the first Governor General of India under this new designation, serving from 1833 to 1835.

Q11. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? 

(a) The principle of natural justice 

(b) The procedure established by law 

(c) Fair application of law 

(d) Equality before law

Answer: C

Due process refers to just, rational, fair, and fair treatment under the regular judicial process. For instance, the accused must be given the chance to present their own defence before being sentenced.

The “Procedure Established by Law” means that a law duly enacted by the legislature or the concerned body is valid only if the correct procedure has been followed to the letter.

“Due Process of Law” is a doctrine that not only checks if there is a law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also ensures that the law is made fair and just.

Q12. Consider the following statements 

Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. 

Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I1 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

‘Prisons’ is a State subject under the State List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. So, the management and administration of Prisons fall exclusively in the domain of the State Governments.

As per the provisions of Constitution of India, ‘prisons’/ ‘persons detained therein’ is a ‘State’ subject. The responsibility of prison management and prisoners administration solely vests with State Governments who alone are competent to make appropriate legislative provisions in this regard.

The 1894 Act dealt with provisions for accommodation, food, clothing, bedding segregation, and the discipline of prisoners, including solitary confinement. It also laid down provisions for the prisoners’ employment, health, and visits.

Q13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the `Constitution’ of a country? 

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws. 

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government. 

(c) It defines and limits the powers of government. 

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Answer: C

The primary purpose of a constitution is to establish the framework for governance and define the structure of the government. It outlines the powers and functions of various branches of government, such as the executive, legislative, and judiciary. 

While the other options may be important aspects or goals associated with a constitution, such as the creation of political offices and a government (B) or securing social justice, social equality, and social security (D), they do not capture the fundamental role of a constitution in defining and limiting the powers of the government.

Q14. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?          (a) 1st Amendment                 

(b) 42nd Amendment                

(c) 44th Amendment                 

(d) 86th Amendment               

Answer: B

The constitutional amendment in India that was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the fundamental rights is the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

The Parliament was given unrestrained power to amend any parts of the Constitution, without judicial review. This essentially invalidated the Supreme Court’s ruling in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973. The amendment to article 368, prevented any constitutional amendment from being “called in question in any Court on any ground”. It also declared that there would be no limitation whatever on the constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.

The 42nd Amendment Act is often referred to as the “Mini Constitution” or the “Constitution of Indira.” It was enacted during the period of emergency rule in India and introduced several significant changes to the Constitution. One of the main objectives of the amendment was to curtail judicial interpretations that expanded the scope and enforcement of fundamental rights.

The amendment sought to restrict the power of the judiciary and grant more authority to the Parliament in matters related to constitutional interpretation. It added certain provisions like Article 31-C, which aimed to limit the judicial review of laws affecting socio-economic rights. The amendment also introduced changes to the powers of the President, the Prime Minister, and the state governments.

The 42nd Amendment Act was met with criticism for its perceived erosion of judicial independence and dilution of fundamental rights. Subsequently, many provisions of the amendment were revised or repealed by subsequent amendments, restoring some of the original balance between the judiciary and the executive.

Q15. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India :

1. The National Commission  for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission                   
3. The National Law Commission  
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission          

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?           

 (a) Only one

 (b) Only two                     

 (c) Only three                   

 (d) All four

Answer: A

The National Commission for Backward Classes is an Indian constitutional body under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India established through Constitution Act, 2018 (also called, 102nd Amendment Act, 2018) this amendment act in the constitution to make it a constitutional body under Article 338B of the Indian Constitution. It was constituted pursuant to the provisions of the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993

The National Human Rights Commission of India is a statutory body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993. It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government 

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission of India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. Its head office is in New Delhi. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Q16. Consider the following statements : 

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 
2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. 

How many of the above statements are correct? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

Answer: (d) 

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of the decision become invalid: This statement is incorrect. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court, it does not render all acts done by the President in the performance of their duties before the date of the decision as invalid. The President’s actions and decisions taken during their tenure remain valid unless specifically declared otherwise.

Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place: This statement is incorrect. The elections for the post of the President of India cannot be postponed solely on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. The President’s election follows a specific schedule and process outlined in the Constitution.

When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent: This statement is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not prescribe specific time limits within which the President has to declare their assent when a bill is presented to them. The President has the power to return a bill for reconsideration, withhold their assent, or give their assent based on their discretion.

Q17. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament Money the following statements :  

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill: This statement is correct. The Finance Bill, being a Money Bill, can be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. However, any amendments made by the Rajya Sabha must be accepted or rejected by the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha has the final say on the Finance Bill.

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations: This statement is correct. As per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations for amendments, which are not binding on the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha has the final authority to accept or reject these recommendations.

In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for the Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill: This statement is correct. In the case of a disagreement between the two houses on a Money Bill, there is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve the matter. The decision of the Lok Sabha is considered final. However, if there is a disagreement on a non-Money Bill, including the Finance Bill, a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be called to resolve the disagreement.

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ 

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 
2. hunting is not allowed in such area 
3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 
4. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices 

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four

Answer: (b)

1. Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest: This statement is correct. When an area is notified as a ‘Community Reserve’, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State or a designated authority becomes responsible for the management and governance of the reserve.
2. Hunting is not allowed in such area: This statement is correct. In a Community Reserve, hunting is strictly prohibited to protect and conserve wildlife.
3. People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce: This statement is incorrect. In a Community Reserve, the collection of non-timber forest produce by the local communities may be regulated or restricted to ensure sustainable use and conservation of resources. It is subject to the specific rules and regulations governing the Community Reserve.
4. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices: This statement is incorrect. Traditional agricultural practices are generally not allowed within a Community Reserve. The primary focus of a Community Reserve is to conserve biodiversity and natural habitats, which may require restricting agricultural activities to protect the ecological integrity of the area.

Q19. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 
3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President: This statement is correct. The notification of an area as a Scheduled Area within a State is done through a Presidential Order. The President has the authority to declare certain areas as Scheduled Areas based on the criteria specified in the Constitution.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block: This statement is correct. In a Scheduled Area, the administrative units are organized from the district level to the cluster of villages in the Block. The District is the largest administrative unit, and within the District, there are smaller administrative units such as Blocks and Clusters of villages.
3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States: This statement is incorrect. In reality, it is the Governor of the concerned State who is responsible for submitting annual reports to the President of India, not the Chief Ministers. The Governor acts as the representative of the President in the State and is responsible for reporting on the administration and development activities in the Scheduled Areas to the President through the Union Home Ministry.

Q20. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration: This statement is correct. The Supreme Court has indeed held in certain judgments that while reservation policies can be implemented under Article 16(4) to provide opportunities to backward classes, they should also be balanced with the consideration of maintaining the efficiency of administration, as stated in Article 335.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’: This statement is incorrect. Article 335 does not provide a specific definition of ‘efficiency of administration’. Instead, it emphasizes the need to balance the claims of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (SC/ST) with the maintenance of efficiency in administration. Article 335 states that the claims of the SC/ST candidates should be taken into consideration in appointments and posts under the State, but without compromising the efficiency of administration.

Q21. Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.

Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production: This statement is correct. India does have significant uranium deposits, but its reliance on coal for electricity production is higher compared to uranium. Coal continues to be the primary source of energy for electricity generation in India due to its abundant availability and existing infrastructure.

Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity: This statement is incorrect. While uranium is used as a fuel for nuclear power generation, the level of enrichment required for electricity production is not fixed at 60%. The enrichment level can vary depending on the type of reactor and its design. Typically, for light-water reactors, the enrichment level is around 3-5% uranium-235, not 60%.

Q22. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

This statement is correct. Marsupials, a group of mammals characterized by carrying their young in a pouch, are not naturally found in India. They are primarily found in Australia and nearby regions.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

This statement is incorrect. While some marsupials, such as kangaroos and wallabies, are known to inhabit grassland habitats, they are not limited to montane grasslands. Marsupials can be found in a variety of habitats, including forests, woodlands, and even deserts. Additionally, their survival is not limited to areas without predators, as marsupials have evolved various adaptations to coexist with predators.

Q23. ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

(b) The United Nations Environment Programme

(c) The United Commission for Environment and Nations World Development

(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

The ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (ISSG), which develops the Global Invasive Species Database, belongs to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The IUCN is a global organization dedicated to conserving nature and promoting sustainable development. It provides a platform for governments, NGOs, scientists, and experts to collaborate on conservation efforts and develop strategies to address various environmental challenges.

The ISSG, as a specialist group within the IUCN, focuses specifically on invasive species and their impacts on biodiversity and ecosystems. It works to raise awareness, conduct research, and develop tools and resources related to invasive species management. The Global Invasive Species Database is one of its notable initiatives, providing valuable information on invasive species worldwide.

Therefore, the ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ belongs to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Q24. Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Among the given fauna, two of them are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque: Lion-tailed Macaques (Macaca silenus) are diurnal primates, which means they are active during the day and rest at night. They are not generally nocturnal or most active after sunset.
2. Malabar Civet: The Malabar Civet (Viverra civettina) is a nocturnal mammal found in the Western Ghats of India. It is primarily active during the night, making it nocturnal.
3. Sambar Deer: The Sambar Deer (Rusa unicolor) is a large deer species found in various habitats across India. They are generally crepuscular, which means they are most active during dawn and dusk. While they may be active during the night, they are not strictly nocturnal.

Based on the explanations above, the correct answer is (b) Only two.

Q25. Which of the following organisms perform a waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?  

(a) Butterflies 

(b) Dragonflies 

(c) Honeybees 

(d) Wasps 

Answer: (c) Honeybees.

Honeybees are known to perform a waggle dance as a means of communication within their colony. This dance is performed by worker bees to indicate the direction and distance to a source of food, such as nectar or pollen. The waggle dance involves the bee moving in a figure-eight pattern while waggling its abdomen and producing buzzing sounds. By observing the direction and intensity of the waggle dance, other worker bees can determine the location of the food source and navigate to it. This behavior is a remarkable example of how honeybees communicate and share information within their colony.

Q.26)   Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have biolumi- nescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (d) All four.

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties: Certain mushrooms possess bioactive compounds that exhibit medicinal properties. For example, species like Reishi (Ganoderma lucidum) and Turkey Tail (Trametes versicolor) have been traditionally used for their potential health benefits.
2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties: Certain mushrooms contain psychoactive compounds such as psilocybin and psilocin, which can induce hallucinogenic effects. These mushrooms are often referred to as “magic mushrooms” or “psilocybin mushrooms.”
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties: Certain species of mushrooms contain natural insecticidal compounds that can be used as a natural alternative to synthetic insecticides. For example, the entomopathogenic fungus Beauveria bassiana is used as a biocontrol agent against insect pests.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties: There are certain species of mushrooms, such as the Jack-O’-Lantern mushroom (Omphalotus olearius), that have bioluminescent properties. They emit a faint greenish glow in the dark due to the presence of luciferin-luciferase reaction.

Q.27) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian squirrels, such as the Indian palm squirrel (Funambulus spp.), do not build nests by making burrows in the ground. They usually build nests called dreys in tree branches or tree hollows.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Squirrels do not typically store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They often create small caches in various locations, such as tree hollows or crevices, to store their food for later consumption.

Statement 3 is correct: Indian squirrels, including the Indian palm squirrel, are primarily herbivorous and feed on a diet consisting mainly of plant material such as fruits, nuts, seeds, and tree bark.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) All three.

Q.28) Consider the following statements: 

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three.

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures above the boiling point of water. These organisms are known as thermophiles and can withstand and thrive in extreme heat, such as hot springs or deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures below the freezing point of water. These organisms are known as psychrophiles or cryophiles and can survive and reproduce in extremely cold conditions, such as glaciers or Arctic regions.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3. These organisms are known as acidophiles and have adapted to acidic conditions, such as acid mine drainage or volcanic areas.

Q.29) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat

(b) Orangutan

(c) Otter

(d) Sloth bear

Answer: (b) Orangutan

Orangutans are known to use tools in their natural behavior, including making tools with sticks to scrape insects from holes in trees or logs of wood. They exhibit remarkable problem-solving abilities and tool use in their foraging activities. This behavior is observed in both wild and captive orangutans and is a demonstration of their intelligence and adaptability.

Q.30) Consider the following:

1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer is (d) All four.

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in the making of all four mentioned substances:

1. Aerosols: HFCs are commonly used as propellants in aerosol products, such as sprays for personal care, household cleaning, and automotive applications.
2. Foam agents: HFCs are used as blowing agents in the production of foam materials, including foam insulation, foam packaging, and foam cushions.
3. Fire retardants: HFCs are used in some fire extinguishing systems and fire retardant formulations.
4. Lubricants: HFCs are used as lubricants in certain applications, especially in the aerospace industry.

Therefore, HFCs are used in the making of all four substances.

Q.31) Consider the following statements:

1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

.Ans: C

Statement 1 is Correct: The main source of water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum. This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’.      

Statement 2 is Correct: The Kolleru lake is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna, fed by two seasonal rivers and a number of drains and channels

Statement 3 is Correct: The Kanwar lake draws water from the confluence of the Gandak, the Bia and the Kareh river, is situated near Manjhaul, 22 km northwest of Begusarai, Bihar.

Q.32) Consider the following pairs:

Port: Well known as

1. Kamarajar Port: First major port in India registered as a company
2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam: Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs 

(d) None of the pairs

Ans: B

Statement 1 is Correct: Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, it is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company.

Statement 2 is Correct: The mega port at Mundra is a major economic gateway that caters to the northern hinterland of India with multimodal connectivity. The deep draft, all-weather port is the largest commercial port in India with state-of-the-art infrastructure.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Mundra Port, India’s biggest commercial port by volumes, has overtaken state-run Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) to become the country’s largest container gateway by handling 5.65 million twenty-foot equivalent units  in FY21.

Q.33) Consider the following trees:

1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans: B

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Jackfruit is an evergreen tree characterised by its dense foliage and exudation of latex from above ground plant parts including fruits when   

Statement 2 is Correct: Mahua tree is known as Indian Butter Tree. A medium sized to large deciduous tree with a large rounded crown

 Statement 3 Is Correct: Teak (Tectona grandis) is a tropical hardwood tree species in the family Lamiaceae. It is a large, deciduous tree that occurs in mixed hardwood forests. 

Q.34) Consider the following statements:

1. India has more arable area than China.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans:B

Statement 1 is Correct  
Statement 2 is correct: . Irrigated area accounts for nearly 48.8 per cent of the 140 million hectare (mha) of agricultural land in India. China’s irrigation cover is 41% of cultivated area, and India’s is 48%.
Statement 3 is incorrect: China’s productivity in most crops is 50 to 100% higher than India’s

Q.35) Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves 

(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans

(c) Naupada Swamp

(d) Rann of Kutch

Ans: D

The Rann of Kutch is a large seasonal salt marsh located in the Thar Desert in the state of Gujarat, India. It is a unique ecosystem characterized by vast stretches of saline marshland that gets flooded during the monsoon season and dries up during the rest of the year. The Rann of Kutch was formed due to multiple instances of sea level fluctuations and geological processes over millions of years, resulting in the deposition of salts and minerals in the region.

The other options mentioned, Bhitarkanika Mangroves, Marakkanam Salt Pans, and Naupada Swamp, are also wetland ecosystems but they do not exhibit the same characteristics of extensive marshland resulting from repeated falls in sea level like the Rann of Kutch.

Q.36) Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are of which one of the

rich sources following?

(a) Aluminum

(b) Copper

(c) Iron

(d) Titanium

Ans: D

India is endowed with large resources of heavy minerals which occur mainly along coastal stretches of the country and also in inland placers.
Heavy mineral sands comprise a group of seven minerals, viz, ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite), rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite. Ilmenite (FeO.TiO2 ) and rutile (TiO2 ) are the two chief minerals of titanium.

Hence, option D is correct.

1. 37) About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by –

(a) Argentina

(b) Botswana

(c) Democratic Republic of the Congo

(d) Kazakhstan

Ans: C

About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (c) Democratic Republic of the Congo.

The Democratic Republic of the Congo is the largest producer of cobalt globally, accounting for a significant portion of the world’s cobalt supply. Cobalt is a critical component in the production of lithium-ion batteries, which are widely used in electric vehicles and various electronic devices. The country’s rich reserves and favorable geological conditions make it a major player in the global cobalt market.

Q.38) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon

(b) Nigeria

(c) South Sudan

(d) Uganda

Ans: A

The Congo Basin spans across six countries—Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.
Hence, option A is correct.

Q.39) Consider the following statements:

1. Amarkantak confluence of Hills are at the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans: D

Amarkantak are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges. Hence,

option 1 is not correct.

Seshachalam Hills are hilly ranges part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh state, in southeastern India.

The Biligirirangana Hills or Biligirirangan Hills (as referred to in biology and geology

is a hill range situated in south-western Karnataka, at its border with Tamil Nadu (Erode District).

Q.40) With reference to India’s projects connectivity, consider the following statements:

1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None 

Ans: D

The East-West corridor of the Golden Quadrilateral connects Silchar and Porbandar cities in India. 

None of the statements provided are correct regarding India’s connectivity projects. The East-West Corridor under the Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat, not Dibrugarh and Surat. The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur, India, with Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar, not Chiang Mai. The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor (BCIM EC) connects Kolkata in India with Kunming in China, not Varanasi.

Q.41) Consider the following statements: 

Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits (InvITs) distributed to their investors is in Infrastructure Investment Trusts exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Recon- struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I -II is correct but Statement is incorrect

Answer: d

Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits (InvITs) distributed to their investors is in Infrastructure Investment Trusts exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable: This statement is incorrect. In Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs), both the interest income and dividend income distributed to the investors are taxable. There is no exemption from tax for interest income from InvITs.

Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’: This statement is incorrect. InvITs are not recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’. This act primarily deals with the securitization and reconstruction of financial assets and enforcement of security interests in relation to loans and borrowings.

Based on the revised explanations, the correct answer is (d) Statement-I is incorrect, and Statement-II is incorrect. I apologize for the confusion caused by the earlier response.

Q.42) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : In the post-pandemic recent past many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. 

Statement-II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(c) Statement-I is correct but  Statement-II is incorrect 

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but  Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes: This statement is correct. In the post-pandemic period, as economies recover and inflationary pressures increase, some central banks have indeed raised interest rates to manage inflation and stabilize their economies. These interest rate hikes are implemented as part of monetary policy measures.

Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means: This statement is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Central banks do assume that they have the ability to influence and control inflation through monetary policy tools, including interest rate adjustments. By raising interest rates, central banks aim to curb inflationary pressures by reducing borrowing and spending, thus addressing the rising consumer prices.

Based on the revised explanations, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Q.43) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement-I1: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer : (a)

Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change: This statement is correct. Carbon markets, such as emissions trading or cap-and-trade systems, have emerged as important tools in the fight against climate change. They provide economic incentives for reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promoting the transition to cleaner technologies.

Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State: This statement is the correct explanation for Statement-I. In carbon markets, private sector entities are typically required to purchase or acquire emission allowances or credits to cover their emissions. The revenue generated from the sale of these allowances or credits can be used by the State for various purposes, such as funding climate change mitigation and adaptation initiatives.

Based on the revised explanations, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Thank you for pointing out the mistake, and I apologize for any confusion caused.

Q.44) Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?

(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ of settlement

(b) Oversight payment systems

(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments

(d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking Financial Institutions

Answer : (a)

Correct answer: (a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ of settlement

‘Sterilization’ is an activity undertaken by the central bank to offset the impact of its interventions in the foreign exchange market on the domestic money supply. When the central bank intervenes in the foreign exchange market by buying foreign currency, it increases the domestic money supply. To prevent excess liquidity in the economy, the central bank conducts sterilization operations.

One of the key methods of sterilization is through ‘Open Market Operations’ (OMOs), specifically the sale or purchase of government securities. In the case of intervention to buy foreign currency, the central bank can sterilize the increased money supply by selling government securities in the open market, thereby reducing the money available in the economy. Conversely, if the central bank intervenes to sell foreign currency, it can sterilize the reduction in money supply by purchasing government securities.

Therefore, conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ of settlement is considered a part of ‘sterilization’ by the Reserve Bank of India.

Q.45) Consider the following marke

1. Government Bond Market
2. Call Money Market
3. Treasury Bill Market
4. Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer : (b)

In the given options, only two of them are included in the capital markets:

1. Government Bond Market: This market involves the buying and selling of government bonds, which are debt securities issued by the government to raise funds. It is an important segment of the capital market as it allows governments to borrow money from investors.
2. Stock Market: The Stock Market, also known as the equity market or share market, is a market where shares or ownership interests in publicly-traded companies are bought and sold. It is a crucial component of the capital market, allowing companies to raise capital through the issuance of shares, and investors to trade in those shares.

The other two options, Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market, are part of the money market rather than the capital market.

1. Call Money Market: The Call Money Market is a segment of the money market where banks and financial institutions borrow and lend money for short durations, typically overnight.
2. Treasury Bill Market: Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term government securities with a maturity period of less than one year. The Treasury Bill Market is a part of the money market where these T-bills are traded.

Q.46) Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?

(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender. their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers

(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Answer: (b)

The Small Farmers, Large Field (SFLF) model is founded on the same principles of aggregation and achieving economies of scale, through strengthening backward and forward integration along the supply chain and lowering costs by synchronizing key agricultural operations from field preparation to harvest.

Q.47) Consider the following statements:

1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer : (c) All three

Gond tribals of Satpura hill ranges in Madhya Pradesh traditionally grow niger on the top of the plateau, where water does not stagnate.But due amarbel (a twining parasitic plant known as Cuscuta chinensis in scientific lexicon) the productivity has declined rapidly due to which assured paddy cultivation has been trending. 

 Q.48) Consider the investments in the following assets:

1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer : (c)  Only three 

The term inventory refers to the raw materials used in production as well as the goods produced that are available for sale. A company’s inventory represents one of the most important assets it has because the turnover of inventory represents one of the primary sources of r