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Qn.No

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2024 - QUESTION

OUR TEST BATCH LINKS

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Ans. D

Our Test 19 – Qn.No.57

Who was chosen as the provisional president of the Constituent Assembly? (a) Dr Rajendra Prasad (b) Dr. Sachidanand Sinha (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayer

Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

(a) Algeria and Morocco

(b) Botswana and Namibia

(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

Ans. C

Our Test 9 – Qn.No.95.

Cocoa triangle in Ghana is comprised of

(a) Accra, Kumasi, Tokaorandi

(b) Accra, Lokoja, Tokaorandi

(d) Accra, Kumasi, Lagos

Explanation reads below:

In Ghana, the triangular area between Takoradi, Kumasi and Accra towns has Concentration of cocoa plantations, hence called “Cocoa Triangle”. cocoa tree need warm wet climate, forest protection. Ghana being in the

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. A

Our Test 9 – Qn.No.56

Consider the following statements

1. Thickness of Troposphere at the equator.

2. Thickness of Troposphere at the poles.

Which of the following is / are true?

(a) 1>2 (b) 1=2 (c) 1<2 (d) 1 = Four times 2

Our Test 18 – Qn.No.91

The bulk of heat energy transferred in the troposphere is done by

(a) Convection

(b) Radiation

(d) (b) and (c)

Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance

(b) Durga puja

(d) Kumbh mela

Ans. C

FINAL MOCK TEST 3 (TEST NO.25) Q. No.73

1. Ramman

2. Kalbelia

3. Garba

4. Ramlila

How many of the above is/are correct included under the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All the four (d) Only three

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.

2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Ans. B

OUR TEST 19 Qn.No.48

Consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.

2. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses lapses on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Note:

https://blog.ipleaders.in/when-does-a-bill-lapse-in-the-indian-parliament-all-one-needs-to-know/

Position of the Bill	Lapse of the Bill
A bill pending in the Lok Sabha	Lapses
A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha	Lapses
A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha	Does not Lapse
A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha	Does not Lapse
A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president	Does not Lapse
A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses	Does not Lapse

For example, on September 7, 1990, 74th Constitutional Amendment Bill was introduced in Parliament which later lapsed on the dissolution of Lok

With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.

2 PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.

3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

Our Test 8 – Qn.No.51

Per and polyfluoroalkyl substances are used in

1. Water-repellent clothing

2. Stain-resistant fabrics

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Note:

https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/pfa-dangers-dupont-toxic-chemicals-8643788/

Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues

2. Corn grain

3. Wastewater treatment sludge

4. Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans. C

Our Test 23 – Qn.No.24

1. It is a “drop-in” fuel.

2. Its chemical and physical properties are similar to conventional jet fuel.

3. It can be used in existing aircraft engines without modifications.

Which of the above is/are true w.r.t. Sustainable Aviation Fuel?.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Read with our Explanation – Full Details given.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d'état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. A

OUR TEST 11 Qn.No.80

Maghreb Region includes

(a) Algeria, Libya, Mauritania, Morocco and Tunisia.

(b) Only Algeria, Libya, and Mauritania

(d) Only Algeria, Libya and Tunisia.

Note:

Tigray Region – Ethiopia.

Darfur Region – Region of Western Sudan.

Sahel region – Transition region between Sahara and Savanna

Explanation Reads

Like other countries in the wider Sahel region, the African region separating the Sahara Desert in the north from the tropics to the south, Niger has also faced the rise of Islamist extremist groups, armed local militias supported by stretched state security forces to counter the jihadist threat, and the resulting violence and displacement.

OUR TEST 22 Qn.No.66

The “Sahel region” often seen in news includes

1. Congo

2. Chad

3. Niger

4. Nigeria

5. Senegal

(a) Only 4 of these

(b) Only 3 of these

(d) Only 2 of these

Explanation Reads

• The Sahel, the vast semi-arid region of Africa separating the Sahara Desert to the north and tropical savannas to the south, is as much a land of opportunities as it is of challenges. • Although it has abundant human and natural resources, offering tremendous potential for rapid growth, there are deep-rooted challenges— environmental, political and security— that may affect the prosperity and peace of the Sahel. (MAP GIVEN IN EXPLANATION)

• For this reason, the United Nations has come up with a unique support plan targeting 10 countries to scale up efforts to accelerate prosperity and sustainable peace in the region.

• Countries: Burkina Faso, Cameroon, Chad, The Gambia, Guinea Mauritania, Mali, Niger, Nigeria and Senegal.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II:

Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. A

OUR TEST 6 Qn.No.34

Which of the statements given below is/are correct w.r.t. Bab elMandeb strait'?.

(a) Its location controls access to the Suez Canal and SUMED pipeline.

(b) It is situated between Northeast Africa and West Asia.

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Explanation given in pdf:

....forming a vital link in the maritime trade route connecting the Mediterranean Sea and the Indian Ocean via the Red Sea.

It is a critical chokepoint for energy shipments heading to Europe and North America.

https://iasgoogle.com/news/red-sea-crisis

10.

Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.

2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet.

3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.

4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. D

OUR TEST 2 Qn.No.32

Which of the following statements is not correct about Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)?.

(a) It is regulated by the SEBI.

(b) It is the same as the fiat currency, and is non-exchangeable with the fiat currency.

(d) It will appear as ‘liability’ on the RBI’s balance sheet.

Note:

— CBDC is a legal tender issued by the RBI in digital form. It is the same as the fiat currency, and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency.

— It is a fungible legal tender, for which holders need not have a bank account. The e-rupee will be in the form of a digital token representing a claim on the central bank, and will effectively — function as the digital equivalent of a banknote that can be transferred electronically from one holder to another.

— It will appear as ‘liability’ (currency in circulation) on the RBI’s balance sheet.

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/e-rupee-india-digital-currency-explained-8301325/

Which of the following statements does not reflect the benefits of Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)? 1. Increasing financial inclusion in an economy. 2. Enhancing the effectiveness of the central bank’s monetary policy. 3. Promote disintermediation of scheduled commercial banks. How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/cbdc-in-india-the-pros-and-the-cons/article65344881.ece

11.

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.

3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Ans. C

OUR TEST 2 Qn.No.100

Which of the following are correct w.r.t. Prime Minister?.

1) He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.

2) He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time.

3) He is the chairman of Zonal Council and National Integration Council.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

12.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-1:

The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II:

The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. C

Our Test 5 – Qn.No.2

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect w.r.t. “Indian Flying Fox” ?.

1. It is a keystone species.

2. It is nocturnal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Read with our Explanation – Full Details given.

13.

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition. (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Ans. C

Our Test 1 & 24 – Qn.No.82

The Writ of Prohibition, as per Article 32, cannot be issued against

1) judicial authorities

2) quasi-judicial authorities

3) administrative authorities

4) private authorities

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

Read with our Explanation.

14.

Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.

2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.

3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. C

Our Test 6 – Qn.No.69

Consider the following statements regarding 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023:

1. It has provided reservation of seats for women in Lok Sabha or House of the People.

2. It has provided reservation of seats for women in the Legislative Assembly of every State.

3. The Act will expire after a period of 15 years from the date of commencement.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

15.

Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan

2. Rani-ki-Vav

3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas

4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Ans. B

Our Test 24 – Qn.No.49

1. The Mahabodhi Temple was founded during the reign of Kanishka.

2. ‘Mahayana Buddhism’ was revived under the patronage of the Palas.

3. Rajgriha and Sankasya are important sites considered being part of the ‘Ashtasthanas’ in Buddhism.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Note:

• The Mahabodhi Temple holds the UNESCO World Heritage status and is located………

Our Test 25 – Qn.No.15

1. The Chennakeshava temple

2. The Hoysaleswara Temple

3. The Keshava Temple

4. Yoga Narasimha Temple

Which of the above is/are included under the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas now on the UNESCO World Heritage list?.

(a) 1,2,3

(b) 2,3,4

(d) 1,2,4

Note:

https://indianexpress.com/article/et-al-express-trending/what-makes-the-hoysala-temples-of-karnataka-a-unesco-heritage-site-8950057/

16.

Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.

2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. A

Our Test 21 – Qn.No.61.

Consider the following:

1) The January isotherm taken as a basis for dividing India into tropical and subtropical zones is 15°C.

2) The Isotherm Line, which divides the India North-South into almost two equal parts in January is 20°C.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Read with our Explanation – Full Details of Jnauary Isotherms given.

17.

On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?

1. Equator

2. Tropic of Cancer

3. Tropic of Capricorn

4. Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. D

Our Test 18 – Qn.No.53

Consider the following statements:

1. All locations north of the equator have days longer than 12 hours at the June solstice.

2. On the Antarctic Circle, there are 24 hours of nighttime on the June solstice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18.

"Membrane Bioreactors" are often discussed in the context of:

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies

(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies

(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Ans. D

Our Test 15 – Qn.No.31

TADOX Technology is connected with

(a) Levitating trains

(b) Super computers

(d) Stem Cells

Read with Explanation – Full Details Given

19.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. D

OurTest3 Qn.No.40 (statement1)

The group of air pollutants that tend to cool the atmosphere are known as

(a) anti-greenhouse gases

(b) ozone enhancers

(d) atmospheric aerosol

Explanation Reads below: Greenhouse effect occurs because the atmosphere transparent to solar radiation, but largely opaque to infrared and far infrared emitted by the planet / body.

OurTest3 Qn.No.36 (statement2)

For statement 2

Gases that absorb infrared radiation include all of the

following except:

(a) carbon dioxide

(b) methane

(d) sulfur oxide

Explanation reads below:

Tropospheric ozone (O3) is the third most important anthropogenic greenhouse gas after carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4). Ozone absorbs infrared radiation (heat) from the Earth's surface, reducing the amount of radiation that escapes to space

20.

Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.

2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.

3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. C

Our Test 19 – Qn.No.3

1. The Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha can act as a quasi-judicial body in penalizing its members for unethical practices.

2. The mandate of the Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha is to safeguard the “freedom, authority, and dignity of Parliament”.

3. There is a provision for a half-hour discussion on the report of the Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha.

How many of the following is/are correctly w.r.t. The Ethics Committee of Lok Sabha?

(a) Only two (b) Only one (c) All the three (d) None of these

Read with our Explanation – Full Details of Ethics Commmitee given.

21.

Under which of the following articles of the Constitution of India, has the supreme court of India placed the right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15 (b) Article 16

Ans. D

Our Test 19 – Qn.No.82

Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution are being contexted by the proponents and opponents of DNA Profiling Bill?.

1. Article 20 (3)

2. Article 21

3. Article 51A(h)

4. Article 51A(j)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1& 2 by the Opponents and 3 & 4 by the proponents.

(b) 2 by the Opponents and 3 by the proponents.

(d) 1 & 2 by the Opponents and 4 by the proponents.

Explanation reads

The primary objections were on grounds of privacy(Article 21), utility and possibility of misuse…..

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-the-dna-bill-8857810/#:~:text=Parliament%20last%20year.-,The%20DNA%20Bill,carry%20out%20DNA%20sample%20tests

Our Test 23 – Qn.No.28

1. Digital Personal Data Protection Act 2023 provides for Right to be Forgotten as a human right. 2. Information Technology Act 2000 amended in 2022 makes Right to be Forgotten as a statutory right. Which of the statements given above is/are correct regarding The "Right to be Forgotten"? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/six-years-since-puttaswamy-indias-privacy-report-card-8937132/

22.

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State

2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State

3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India

4. The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1,3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. A

Our Test 12 – Qn.No.68

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. NITI Aayog 2. Inter-State Council 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only

Explanation Reads as ……The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils……other members details given….

23.

Consider the following pairs:

	Country	Reason for being in the news
1.	Argentina	Worst Economic Crisis
2.	Sudan	War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces
3.	Turkey	Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Ans. B

Our Test 4 – Qn.No.62

Explanation Reads

Nordic leaders in an effort to show NATO’s expanding power….

Turkey reversed course ….

24.

According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels

(b) Ships using fossil fuels

(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Ans. D

OUR TEST 24 Qn.No.55

SO₂ pollution is indicated by

(a) Marchantia

(b) Sphagnum

(d) Nephrolepis

https://iasgoogle.com/news/stubble-burning-grap-ppp-100-prelims-2024-5

Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) is a gas that is produced by volcanic eruptions and industrial processes, particularly the combustion of coal and oil at power plants and the smelting of mineral ores that contain sulfur. In the atmosphere, SO₂ can oxidize to form sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄), which is a major component of acid rain. The largest source of SO₂ in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities. Smaller sources of SO₂ emissions include: industrial processes such as extracting metal from ore; natural sources such as volcanoes; and locomotives, ships and other vehicles and heavy equipment that burn fuel with a high sulfur content.

25.

With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.

2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only.

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. B

OUR TEST 7 Qn.No.11 and 24, 90

Consider the following events:

1. Indigo Revolt

2. Poligar Revolt

3. Munda Rebellion

4. Pabna Movement The correct chronological sequence of these events is: (a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Consider the following statements: 1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants. 2. Acharya J.B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Explanation

In Bihar, as in Bengal, there was widespread dissatisfaction among the ryots regarding indigo cultivation because of the tinkathia system.

Qn. No.90

The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions? (a) Making Zamindar’s position strong vis-a-vis the ryot (b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars (c) Making judicial system more eﬃ cient (d) None of the above statements (a), (b) and (c) is correct.

Explanation

Sunset clause was also added for zamindars by the company.

26.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. D

OUR TEST 1 Qn.No.73

Consider the following statements w.r.t. OPEC:

1. It has 13 member countries.

2. It has two member countries from South America. Which of the above statements is/are correct?.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Note: OPEC has 13 member countries (Algeria, Angola, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, the Republic of the Congo, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates and Venezuela): five in the Middle East (Western Asia), seven in Africa, and one in South America.

OUR TEST 23 Qn.No.49

Essequibo river is a bone of contention between

(a) Venezuela and Guyana

(b) Azerbaijan and Armenia

(d) China and Japan

Explanation

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/venezuela-vote-shows-overwhelming-support-for-claim-on-region-of-guyana/article67604673.ece

Mr. Maduro, who will seek reelection next year amid a punishing economic crisis…..

27.

Consider the following:

1. Pyroclastic debris

2. Ash and dust

3. Nitrogen compounds

4. Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Ans. D

Our Test 18 – Qn.No.27.

What Causes Acid Rain? 1. lightning bolts 2. emissions from volcanoes 3. oil refineries (a) Only 2 & 3 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 1 & 2 (d) 1, 2 & 3

Explanation Reads

Volcanic eruptions produce sulfur dioxide, sulfur trioxide, and nitrogen dioxide.

Our Test 21 – Qn.No.81.

Major volcanic eruptions that inject large quantities of aerosols into the stratosphere, such as that of Mt. Pinatubo in 1991, can noticeably reduce average global surface temperatures for some time afterward.

28.

With reference to "water vapour", which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.

2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. A

Our Test 18 – Qn.No.43

Which of the below is/are correct?

(a) Argon is a "constant gas” in the atmosphere.

(b) Argon is present in Ionosphere.

(d) Neither (a) nor (b

Classification of Atmosphere according to composition

1. Homosphere: The word 'Homo' means uniform and 'sphere' means region then

altogether it means the region of constant. The chemical composition of the

atmosphere up to 90 km from the earth's surface is uniform or the proportion of

gases, aerosols, water vapour are almost the same throughout. This layer

comprises of Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere. However, density

decreases increase of height……

29.

Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)

2. Motor vehicles

3. Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. D

Our Test 2 – Qn.No.66

Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Exchange Traded Funds?.

(a) These are offered on assets like Indian equities, internationalequities, bonds or gold.

(b) They can be bought or sold from the exchange on a real time basis.

(d) They can be bought and sold intra-day like stocks.

Our Test 6 – Qn.No.66.

Consider the following statements about Dollar-Rupee sell/buy swap auction:

1. Under this RBI, first buys dollars from banks and then sells these dollars to the banks on predetermined dates.

2. Issuance of these bonds can boost inflation in the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Read with our Explanation – Full Details given.

30.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II:

Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. D

Our Test 23 – Qn.No.21

1. White dwarf stars are formed when the hydrogen used as nuclear fuel by the star is exhausted.

2. All the white dwarf stars cool and transform into black dwarfs over a period of time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct regarding ‘Life Cycle of Stars’?.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-how-the-stars-provided-the-carbon-that-makes-life-possible-6499596/

https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/extreme-white-dwarf-sets-cosmic-records-for-small-size-huge-mass-7384372/

31.

How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One (b) Two

Our Test 22 – Qn.No.50

Delimitation Commission is appointed by

(a) President to determine the geographical size of the constituencies based on their population.

(b) Election Commission to determine the geographical size of the constituencies based on their population.

(d) President in consultation with the Chief Election Commissioner to determine the geographical size of the constituencies based on their population.

Our Test 6 – Qn.No.15

https://iasgoogle.com/n/september-20-current-affairs-2023

32.

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani

2. Manipuri

3. Nepali

4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4

Ans: a

Our Test 1 – Qn.No.9

Consider the following statements:

1. There were only 14 languages in 8th Schedule initially.

2. Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali were added in 2004.

(a) Only 1 is true

(b) Only 2 is true

(d) 1 and 2 are false

Note : ans c

Our Test 17 – Qn.No.84

Article 15 (6) and Article 16 (6) were inserted in the Indian constitution by

(a) The 103rd Amendment

(b) The 102nd Amendment

(d) The 92nd Amendment

Note: Explanation reads below

102nd Amendment Act, 2018, granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).

The 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 included four more languages in the Eighth

Schedule. They are:

1. Bodo

2. Dogri (Dongri)

3. Mathilli (Maithili) and

4. Santhali.

With this, the total number of constitutionally recognised languages increased to 22.

33.

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.

2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.

3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Our Test 8 – Qn.No.34

Under which Article of the Constitution of India has provision been made for reservation of seats for women in Panchayats?

(a) Article 243 B

b) Article 243 C

(d) Article 243 E

Note:

Our Test 12 – Qn.No.26

Which of the following have been provided under the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act 1996?.

1. Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Tribes must not be less than half of the total number of seats.

2. All the seats of Chairpersons at all levels must be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes.

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 1

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Note : explanations reads below

.. reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas in every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the population of the communities for whom reservation is sought to be given under Part IX of the Constitution.

Our Test 22 – Qn.No.22

Consider the following statements w.r.t. a “Constitution Amendment Bill”:

1. It can be introduced in the House of the People only.

2. It can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member.

3. It must be passed in by more than 50 percent of the total membership

of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House

present and voting.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Note: Explanations reads below

The Indian Constitution, being a living document, provides for its amendment. The detailed provisions regarding the Amendment of the Constitution of India are contained in Article 368 in Part XX of the Indian Constitution. ……

34.

The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Ans. D

Our Test 21 – Qn.No.11.

1. It studies the relationship between economic development and population growth.

2. It can be used to describe and predict the future population of an area.

Which of the above is/are incorrect w.r.t. Demographic Transition Theory?.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/charting-a-path-for-the-population-committee/article67825927.ece#:~:text=With%20the%20TFR%20projecte%20d%20to,of%20the%20working%2Dage%20population.

Our Test 21 – Qn.No.47

Explanation

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/june-27-current-affairs-2023

35.

Consider the following countries:

1. Finland 2. Germany

3. Norway 4. Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

Ans. B

OUR TEST 9. QNO 64

Kiel canal links

(a) Caspian Sea and Baltic Sea

(b) North Sea and Caspian Sea

(d) Caspian Sea and Red Sea

OUR TEST 24. QNO 100

The North Sea: is a sea of the Atlantic Ocean between Great Britain, Jutland, Norway, two States of Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and Hauts-deFrance.

36.

Consider the following pairs:

	Country	Animals found in its natural habitat
1.	Brazil	Indri
2.	Indonesia	Elk
3.	Madagascar	Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two.

(d) None

Ans. D (None)

Our TEST 14, Qn.no. 97

1. Tamarin 2. Marmoset 3. Langur 4. Gibbon Which one of the following is/are monkeys? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 only

Explanation

Apes (Hominoidea) are a branch of Old-World tailless simians native to Africa and Southeast Asia. They are divided into Greater Apes and Lesser Apes. The Greater Apes family is Hominidae, with subfamily comprising of gorillas, hominoids and chimps, whereas Lesser Apes belong to family of Hylobatidae. For example, Bonobos, Pygmy Chimpanzee, Gibbon, Orangutan etc.

Our TEST 3, Qn.no. 78

The endangered indri indri is found in

(a) Madagascar

(b) Mauritius

(d) India

Explanation: The endangered largest living lemur idri is found in Madagascar. Madagascar is known for its famous lemurs which are currently facing extinction. Lemur idri idri is the largest living lemur found in the wildlife of Madagascar. The major threat to the extinction of lemur is the deforestation and loss of habitats. Lemurs are similar to the other existing primates but they are evolved freely from monkeys and chimpanzees and are adapted to the seasonal climate of Madagascar.

Our TEST 13, Qn.no. 16

https://iasgoogle.com/n/june-6-current-affairs-2023

37.

Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide

(b) Hydronium

(d) Water vapour

Ans. D

Our TEST 20, Qn.no. 7

Consider the following statements:

1. Green Ammonia is produced by the Haber process.

2. Ammonia cannot be used in a fuel cell.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Read with explanation

Green ammonia can be used as an energy carrier and energy storage medium. Hydrogen, a component of ammonia, can be extracted when needed to generate electricity or serve as a fuel for fuel cells, making it a versatile energy storage solution.

As a fuel, green ammonia can power vehicles with lower emissions, reducing air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions.

Our TEST 13, Qn.no. 4

https://iasgoogle.com/n/june-9-current-affairs-2023

Also there were two question on Green Hydrogen in our test batch.

38.

Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?

(a) Nitric oxide

(b) Nitrous oxide

(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

Ans. A

Our Test 24 – Qn.No.95

1. Peroxyacetyl nitrate

2. Nitrous acid

3. Nitric acid

4. Ozone

How many of the above is/are present in Photochemical smog?.

(a) Only one

(b) All the four

(d) Only three

https://iasgoogle.com/n/discuss-in-detail-the-photochemical-smog-emphasizing-its-formation-effects-and-mitigation-explain-the-1999-gothenburg-protocol-upsc-cse-mains-2022-general-studies-paper-3

Explanation Reads

Nitric oxide also acts as a vasodilator, meaning it helps open blood vessels to improve blood flow. It may also improve immunity by promoting inflammation to fight infections.

39.

Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Krishnadevaraya

(b) Narasimha Saluva

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Ans. A

OUR TEST 11 Qn.No.28

Which Ruler of Vijaynagar had sent His ambassador To the Emperor of China?

(a) Harihara I

(b) Bukka I

(d) Krishna Deva Raya

Explanation given

Krishnadevaraya:

He is the son of Narasanayaka of the Tuluva dynasty

Robert Sewell, mentions that Krishnadevaraya was an unparalleled warrior, shrewd commander, and political expert.

He conquered the Raichur fort by defeating Adil shahi of Bijapur and Shivanasamudra fort from Ummatthur’s Gangaraja.

He established trade relations with the Portuguese by helping him in the war against the bahamani sultan in 1510.

He freed the Bahamani prince who had been imprisoned and coronated on the Bahamani throne at Bidar and earned the title “Yavanarajya Pratisthapanacharya”.

He wrote Amuktamalyada in the Telugu Language and a Sanskrit play Jambavathi Kalyana.

OUR TEST 23 Qn.No.62 Explanation reads

Krishna Deva Raya maintained friendly relations with the Portuguese.

40.

Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.

2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. A

OUR TEST 10 Qn.No.34

Explanation Reads

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/january-27-2024-current-affairs

India is a member of this organisation. Department of Food & Public Distribution under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution Acts as the nodal agency on behalf of government of India in International Grains Council.

41.

The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater" are:

(a) Birds

(b) Fish

(d) Reptiles

Ans. C

Our Test 10 – Qn.No.20.

Arrange the following hills of southern India fromNorth to South?

1. Nilgiri

2. Cardamom

3. Nallamala

4. Anaimalai

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 3, 1, 4, 2

(b) 4, 3, 1, 2

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation reads as below…

…………. of cicadas…….

42.

Consider the following:

1. Cashew

2. Papaya

3. Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans. A

Our Test 10 – Qn.No.20.

CITES removes India from negative list for export of Red Sanders”. Headline News. Consider the following statements in this context.

1. India was under Review of Significant Trade process for Red Sanders

since 2020.

2. The removal of Red Sanders from RST process from India was

conditional.

3. The CITES Standing Committee has now decided to place India in

Category 2 from Category 3.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?.

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None of these

Explanation reads below ……

Red sanders, ….. are native to a specific region within the Eastern Ghats and are known for their unique flora.

43.

With reference to "Coriolis force", which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.

2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. C

Our Test 9 – Qn.No.93

1. It was an extratropical cyclone.

2. It was sandwiched between two anticyclonic systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct w.r.t. Cyclone Biparjoy?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Note : It never formed near the equator because of the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows

perpendicular to the isobars. This is the only reason the low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified.

Our Test 6 – Qn.No.75

Which of the following are correct w.r.t. “Tropical cyclones”?

(i) Warm, moist air rises up and away from the ocean surface, creating an area of low pressure.

(ii) They form close to the equator but seldom at the equator itself because the spinning force, called

the Coriolis force, is lowest there.

(iii) Its intensification is lesser if the cyclone spends more time over the water before landfall.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) (i) only

(b) (ii) only

(d) (i), (ii) & (iii)

Read with our Explanation – Full Details of Coriolis force given.

44.

With reference to the Indian economy, "Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations" are the instruments of:

(a) Bond market

(b) Forex market

(d) Stock market

Ans. C

Our Test 5 – Qn.No.98

1. It is the rate at which shortterm and long-term funds areborrowed and lent in the moneymarket.

2. A tight liquidity condition leadsto a fall in call money rate.

3. It has maturity period of 1 dayonly.

Which of the above statementsis/are correct w.r.t. Call MoneyRate?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Note:

Call money rate is the rate atwhich short term funds areborrowed and lent in the moneymarket.

Our Test 24 – Qn.No.56

Which of the following statements are true regarding “Cash Management Bills”?

1. Issued by Central Government and not by state governments

2. It is used to fund fiscal deficit

3. It can be used for temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 & 2 only

(b) 2 & 3 only

(d) 1 & 3 only

Note:

In 2010, Government of India, in consultation with RBI introduced a new short-term instrument, known as Cash Management Bills (CMBs). It is not used to fund

the Fiscal deficit but is used to meet the temporary mismatches in the cash flow of the Government of India. The CMBs have the generic character of T-bills but are issued for maturities less than 91 days. (Traded in MONEY MARKET also)

Our Test 17 – Qn.No.50

Which of the following are true about Indian Money Market?

1. It provides a key link in the operations of monetary policy to financial markets.

2. It provides funds in non-inflationary way to the government.

3. Treasury Bill is a money market instrument.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

45.

Consider the following pairs:

Party	Its Leader
1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh	Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist Party	C. Rajagopalachari
3. Congress for Democracy	Jagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra Party	Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Ans: (b) Only two

Bharatiya Jana Sangh was led by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (correct).

Socialist Party was not led by C. Rajagopalachari; he was associated with the Swatantra Party.

Congress for Democracy was indeed led by Jagjivan Ram (correct).

Our Test 1 – Qn.No.9

Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was formed at Bombay in October 1934 under the leadership of

1. Jayaprakash Narayan

2. Acharya Narendra Dev

3. Minoo Masani

(a) 1 & 2

(b) 1, 2 & 3

d) Only 1

Note: Congress Socialist Party, or (CSP), was a left-wing group within the Congress. It was formed with Acharya Narendra Deva as President and Jay Prakash Narayan as General Secretary in 1934.

46.

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Ans :C

1. Item-67 of the Union List

2. Item-12 of the State List

3. Item-40 of the Concurrent List

Which of the above in Indian Constitution deal with the India’s heritage?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation reads –

Union List - Industries declared by Parliament by law, Inter-State trade and commerce, Inter-State quarantine

State List - Pilgrimages other than those outside of India, Inter-State migration

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/may-21-2023-current-affairs

47.

What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee

2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs

3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Ans. D

Our Test 7 – Qn.No.15

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/october-28-2023-current-affairs

Explanation Reads about - The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is ,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,

48.

Operations undertaken by the army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

(a) Operation Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(d) Operation Madad

Ans. C

Our Test 10 – Qn.No.5

Explanation reads

Topa Pir as model village – Army - Operation Sadbhavana

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/january-28-2024-current-affairs

49.

The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America

(b) Chile and Argentina

(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Ans. A

Our Test 12 – Qn.No.67

i) Russia ii) Canada

iii) France iv) Japan

How many of the above is/are members of G 7 ?.

(a) Only two

(b) Only one

(d) All the four

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/may-18-2023-current-affairs

Explanation:

· World's largest land border is shared by Canada and the USA. The border between Canada and the USA is the world's longest continuous border. The total length of the Canada-USA border is 8,893 Km.

· Kazakhstan-Russia border is the second-longest land border in the world. The total length of the Kazakhstan-Russia border is 6,846 Km.

· Argentina-Chile border is the third-longest land border in the world. The total length of the Argentina-Chile border is 5,300 Km.

· India-Bangladesh border is the fifth-longest land border in the world. The total length of the India-Bangladesh border is 4,053 Km.

50.

With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.

2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. A

With reference to the Cabinet Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Its objective was to obtain an agreement with the Indian leaders as to the framing of a constitution for India.

2. It proposed the creation of a full-fledged Pakistan.

3. It proposed a three-tier federation for India.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only Note:

https://iasgoogle.com/editorial/the-cabinet-mission-1946

51.

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition

2. Variation

3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

Our Test 22 – Qn.No.22

Consider the following statements w.r.t. a “Constitution Amendment Bill”:

1. It can be introduced in the House of the People only.

2. It can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member.

3. It must be passed in by more than 50 percent of the total membership

of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Note: Explanation Reads below

Procedure for Amendment to the Indian Constitution………

52.

Consider the following countries:

1. Italy

2. Japan

3. Nigeria

4. South Korea

5. South Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(d) 3 and 5 only

Ans. A

Our Test 21 – Qn.No.47

Explanation

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/june-27-current-affairs-2023

53.

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.

2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.

4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. C

Our Test 8 – Qn.No.28

Explanation

https://iasgoogle.com/n/september-12-current-affairs-2023

54.

Which one of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

	Army	Airforce	Navy
1.	Brigadier	Air Commodore	Commander
2.	Major General	Air Vice Marshal	Vice Admiral
3.	Major	Squadron Leader	Lieutenant Commander
4.	Lieutenant Colonel	Group Captain	Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Ans. D

Our Test 8 – Qn.No.99

Explanation

https://iasgoogle.com/editorial/all-about-directorate-of-enforcement-ed

55.

Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.

2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).

3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.

4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. D

Our Test 10 – Qn.No.7

Explanation

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/january-26-2024-current-affairs

56.

Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.

2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. B

Our Test 2 – Qn.No.96

With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, consider the following statements:

1. These communities were notified as Scheduled Tribes as per provisions of Article 341(1) of the Indian Constitution.

2. The commission investigates and monitors the matters relating to Safeguards provided for Scheduled Tribes.

3. The commissions recognises the symbiotic relationship between tribes and forests in their traditional wisdom regarding conservation of forests.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Read with Full Explanation – Details gven

57.

Who of the following is the author of the books "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters"?

(a) Bhupender Yadav

(b) Nalin Mehta

(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Ans. D

Our Test 10 – Qn.No.14

Explanation

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/january-31-2024-current-affairs

58.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.

2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. C

OUR TEST 9 Qn.No.11, 51

OUR TEST 23 Qn.No.91

OUR TEST 10 Qn.No.29

Consider the following statements w.r.t. Suez Canal.

1. It was opened in 1869 by Egypt for navigation.

2. Its northern terminus is Port Said.

3. It links the Mediterranean Sea to the Gulf of Suez on the Red Sea.

4. Ben Gurion Canal Project, bypasses the Suez Canal.

Which of the following is / are true?

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/january-30-2024-current-affairs

59.

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.

2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. B

Our Test 12 – Qn.No.40

Which of the FOLLOWING defines “the money given to the government when the already allocated money for expenditure for that year does not turn out to be enough and extra money is sought as provided under Article 115 of the Indian Constitution”?.

(a) Excess grant

(b) Supplementary Grant

(d) Additional Grant

Read with Explanation Passage

60.

With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

1. Nayaputta

2. Shakyamuni

3. Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only.

(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Ans. B

OUR TEST 11 Qn.No.67

Consider the following statements.

I. It is well known for the ruins of a Buddhist stupa discovered there by Major General Alexander Cunningham in 1873.

II. Buddha has been represented in the form of symbols.

III. Queen Maya’s dream, preceding the birth of the Buddha, is a major theme on the railing of the Bharhut “stupa”.

Which of the above statements is/are true w.r.t. Bharhut stupa?. (a) Only I & II (b) Only II & III

https://iasgoogle.com/editorial/bharhut-sculptures

Buddhist Terms List given

Tathāgata - It is a Pali and Sanskrit word; Gautama Buddha uses it when referring to himself in the Pāli Canon.

Five Tathāgatas - In Vajrayana Buddhism, the Five Tathāgatas (pañcatathāgata) or Five Wisdom Buddhas are emanations and representations of the five qualities of the Adi-Buddha or "first Buddha" Vairochana or Vajradhara.

Shakyamuni - Sage of the Sakyas, a name for the Buddha.

61.

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.

2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.

3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

OUR TEST 12 Qn.No.2

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/may-20-2023-current-affairs

62.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

Ans. A

Our Test 3 – Qn.No.16.

Consider the following:

1. Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through rainfall are much smaller than carbon inputs.

2. Gaseous exchanges of phosphorus between organisms and environment are negligible.

3. There are few respiratory pathways for the flow of the

phosphorus into the atmosphere.

Which of these is/are limiting nutrients?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Our Test 21 – Qn.No.35.

Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?.

1. They are generally red in colour.

2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.

3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.

4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 only

Note:

Lateritic Soils:

o Laterite soils are mostly the end products of weathering.

o They are formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods.

o Heavy rainfall promotes leaching (nutrients gets washed away by water) of soil whereby lime and silica are leached away and a soil rich in oxides of iron and aluminium

63.

In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

1. Insurance Companies

2. Pension Funds

3. Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

Our Test 4 – Qn.No.34.

Which of the following policies help to raise interest rate unambiguously and thereby lead to appreciation of currency?

(a) Expansionary fiscal and monetary policy

(b) Contractionary fiscal and monetary policy

(d) Contractionary monetary policy and expansionary fiscal policy

Note:

RBI sells government securities from the market as part of Open Market Operations (OMO) –taking out liquidity

from the market

Our Test 17 – Qn.No.47.

What is G-SAP, sometimes seen in news?

(a) It is a program by the RBI to infuse more liquidity in the market by selling government securities.

(b) It is a program by the RBI to reduce the money supply in the market by selling government securities.

(d) It is a program by the RBI to infuse more liquidity in the market by purchasing government securities.

Note

Government Securities Acquisition Program (G-SAP) Objective of G-SAP:

• As part of G-SAP 1.0, the RBI will agree in advance to buy a certain quantity of government securities on the open market in

64.

Consider the following:

1. Carabid beetles

2. Centipedes

3. Flies

4. Termites

5. Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Ans. B Only three.

Our TEST 12, Qn.no. 38

Pheromones refer to

(a) Hormones in Plants

(b) Hormones in LGBT individuals

(d) None of these

Explanation Given

https://iasgoogle.com/news/may-07-2023-current-affairs

Pheromones are chemicals secreted by many species of insects to attract potential mates. Insects like honey bees also use pheromones to communicate with each other. Many of these compounds have been isolated in the laboratory and are used as pest control. They lure insects into a sticky trap and reduce their spread.

65.

Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

(a) Fig

(b) Mahua

(d) Silk cotton

Ans. A

Our TEST 12, Qn.no. 38

Pheromones refer to

(a) Hormones in Plants

(b) Hormones in LGBT individuals

(d) None of these

Explanation Given

https://iasgoogle.com/news/may-07-2023-current-affairs

66.

Which one of the following is the correct description of "100 Million Farmers"?

(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

(b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.

(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.

(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

Ans. A

Our TEST 10, Qn.no. 55

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/january-23-2024-current-affairs

67.

Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items"?

(a) Big data analytics

(b) Cryptography

(d) Virtual matrix

Ans. C

Our TEST 13, Qn.no. 99

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/july-07-current-affairs-2023

68.

With reference to physical capital in the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Items	Category
1.	Farmer’s plough	Working capital
2.	Computer	Fixed capital
3.	Yarn used by the weaver	Fixed capital
4.	Petrol	Working capital

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Ans. B

A farmer’s plough is considered fixed capital because it is a long-term asset.

A computer is considered fixed capital as it is a long-term asset used in production.

Yarn used by the weaver is considered working capital as it is a consumable item used in production.

Petrol is considered working capital as it is consumed in the process of production.

Our Economy Test 1 – Qn.No.2

Which of the following are part of gross fixed capital formation:

1. Machinery and equipment

2. Construction of buildings and other infrastructure

3. Intellectual property rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 & 3 only

(d) All of the above

Explanation Given

Gross Capital Formation = Gross Fixed Capital Formation (machinery + equipment +

building + cultivated biological resources + intellectual property) + Valuable Metals + Change in stock/inventory Cultivated biological resources is defined as animal resources yielding repeat products and tree, crop and plant resources yielding repeat products whose natural growth and regeneration are under the direct control, responsibility and management of institutional units.

The term ‘Gross fixed capital formation’ is interchangeably used as “gross investment” as valuable metals and change in stock/inventory is less than 1%.

69.

With reference to radioisotope thermoelectrie generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.

2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.

3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. B

Our Test 13 – Qn.No.47

Consider the following statements regarding Neutrinos.

1. They are undisturbed by even the strongest magnetic field.

2. They are produced by the same sources as cosmic rays.

3. They rarely interact with matter.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Note:

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/june-30-current-affairs-2023

Refer Radio Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) given

Our Test 16 – Qn.No.86

Exaplanation reads

Power for the Mission (post landing) - Nuclear radioisotopes and Solar energy Solar

70.

Consider the following planta:

1. Groundnut

2. Horse-gram

3. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans. C

Our Test 10 – Qn.No.79

Exaplanation reads

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/january-19-2024-current-affairs

71.

Consider the following aircraft:

1. Rafael

2. MiG-29

3. Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans. D

Our Test 13 – Qn.No.55

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/july-08-current-affairs-2023

72.

Consider the following statements:

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.

2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.

3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. A

Our Test 16 – Qn.No.84

1. Its gestation period is 93 days.

2. It hunts more during the night.

3. It is the only cat without retractable claws.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct w.r.t. Cheetah?

(a) Only 1 statement (b) Only 2 statements

Explanation Reads

Unlike other “big cats”, a classification that includes: lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars) cheetahs don’t roar.

https://iasgoogle.com/n/May-08-2023-current-affairs

https://iasgoogle.com/editorial/project-cheetah-ndash-prospects-and-challenges

TEST 24 , 71

73.

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.

2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).

3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans. D

Our Test 19 – Qn.No.74.

India allowed FIIs to invest in its green bonds.

SOVEREIGN GREEN BONDS

Our Test 16 – Qn.No.97

The Reserve Bank lends overnight liquidity to banks against the collateral of government and other approved assets at a repo rate under the liquidity adjustment facility (LAF).

Our Test 24 – Qn.No.29

When government is listing a PSU on stock exchange for disinvestment, then FPIs can also purchase the PSU’s shares.

74.

One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

(a) Amazon Basin

(b) Congo Basin

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

Ans. B

Our Test 14 – Qn.No.10

Consider the following statements w.r.t. Seagrasses.

1. They are algae.

2. They act as carbon sinks.

3. They have no roots but thallus.

Which of the is/are true?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Note:

https://iasgoogle.com/n/feb-27-2023-current-affairs

Explanation Reads - The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, along with Brazil and Indonesia. The peat swamp forest of the Congo Basin stores around 29 billion tons of carbon – approximately equivalent to three years’ worth of global greenhouse gas emissions – while the Basin as a whole absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide a year . The Basin stretches across six countries- Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.

75.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

Many chewing gums found in the market are considered pollution. a source of environmental

Statement-II:

Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. A

THOUGH NOT COVERED DIRECTLY IN TEST QUESTION DISCUSSED VERY MUCH IN THE CLASS ALONG WITH MANY PLASTICS RELATED QUESTIONS IN OUR TEST BATCH.

76.

Consider the following airports:

1. Donyi Polo Airport

2. Kushinagar International Airport

3. Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. A

77.

Consider the following description:

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.

2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.

3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm-250 cm.

What is this type of climate?

(a) Equatorial climate

(b) China type climate

(d) Marine West coast climate

Ans. D

78.

Consider the following information:

	Archaeological Site	State	Description
1.	Chandraketugarh	Odisha	Trading Port town
2.	Inamgaon	Maharashtra	Chalcolithic Site
3.	Mangadu	Kerala	Megalithic site
4.	Salihundam	Andhra Pradesh	Rock-cut cave shrines

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. B

79.

Consider the following information:

	Waterfall	Region	River
1.	Dhuandhar	Malwa	Narmada
2.	Hundru	Chota Nagpur	Subarnarekha
3.	Gersoppa	Western Ghats	Netravati

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two.

(d) None

Ans. A

80.

Consider the following information:

	Region	Name of the mountain range	Type of mountain
1.	Central Asia	Vosges	Fold mountain
2.	Europe	Alps	Block mountain
3.	North America	Appalachians	Fold mountain
4.	South America	Andes	Fold mountain

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Ans. B Statement 3 and 4 Correctly matched

81.

Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.

2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.

3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. A

82.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. C

83.

Consider the following statements:

1. There are no parables in Upanishads.

2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. B

84.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. D

85.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. C

86.

Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft

2. Monitoring of precipitation

3. Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans. B

87.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will n ot be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II:

The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans. D

88.

Consider the following:

1. Battery storage

2. Biomass generators

3. Fuel cells

4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources"?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Ans. D

89.

Consider the following:

1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans. C

90.

In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients

2. Mobile air-conditioning systems

3. Preparation of industrial lubricants

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

91.

Recently, the term "pumped-storage hydropower" is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops

(d) Rainwater harvesting system

Ans. C

92.

Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra

(b) Visuddhimagga

(d) Lalitavistara

Ans. C

93.

Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

(a) Kavyalankara

(b) Natyashastra

(d) Mahabhashya

Ans. C

94.

With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.

2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. A

95.

With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

(a) Ghaghara-Gomati - Gandak - Kosi

(b) Gomati Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi

(d) Gomati Ghaghara-Kosi- Gandak

Ans. B

96.

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.

2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.

3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. B

97.

With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements:

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.

2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only.

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. B

98.

With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.

2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. B

99.

With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Economic activity	Sector
1.	Storage of agricultural produce	Secondary
2.	Dairy farm	Primary
3.	Mineral extraction	Tertiary
4.	Weaving cloth	Secondary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Ans. B

100.

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/She shall not preside.

2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.

3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. A

Inorder to derive more benefits, all our questions must be read with

Our Explanations Given in the Class and our explanation PDF file.

ANY SERIOUS IAS ASPIRANT

CAN UNDERSTAND OUR DESIGN.

Our - UPSC CSP (2025) Test series will strategically provide aspirants an in-depth coverage of the syllabus and scientifically framed revision modes through our tests.

Our Tests have been designed in such a way to equip the aspirants, with all the skills and tools needed to handle any surprise UPSC throws at them.

No.	Test Number & Date	Syllabus
1.	November 17, 2024	June 2024 – Current Affairs Polity – Key Concepts – Nation, State, Justice, Equality, Rights, Systems of Government
2.	November 20, 2024	July 1-15, 2024 – Current Affairs Polity – Salient features of Indian Constitution
3.	November 24, 2024	July 16-31, 2024 – Current Affairs Polity – Preamble, Fundamental Rights
4.	December 1, 2024	August 1-15, 2024 – Current Affairs Polity – DPSPs, Fundamenta Duties, Amendments
5.	December 8, 2024	August 15-30, 2024 – Current Affairs Polity – President, Vice president
6.	December 15, 2024	September 1-15, 2024 – Current Affairs Polity – Parliament
7.	December 22, 2024	September 16-30, 2024 – Current Affairs Physical Geography of the world * Origin and evolution of Universe, Solar system * Geological History of the Earth * Geological Time scale * Latitude and Longitude including important Parallels and Meridians * Motions of the Earth and their effects * Inclination of the Earth’s Axis and its effects * Local and Standard Time and the International Date Line, Calendar * Eclipses - Solar, Lunar * Geomorphology - Interior structure of the earth, Earth’s crust, Classification of rocks.
8.	December 29, 2024	October 15-30, 2024 – Current Affairs • Landform Development - First order (continental drift theory, sea floor spreading, plate tectonics theory), Second order (Mountains, Plateaus, Plains & other landforms) • Internal forces & their impact - Volcanoes, Earthquakes, Folding, Faulting, Isostasy) • External forces & their impact - Weathering, Erosion & landforms thus developed • Climatology - Structure, Composition of atmosphere • Weather & Climate • Insolation, Heat Budget, Distribution of temperature, Temperature Inversion • Pressure and Pressure belts • Winds - Planetary, Seasonal and Local; Jet Streams • Precipitation Forms & Types, Distribution of rainfall • Air Masses, Cyclones and anti-cyclones • World Climatic regions • Oceanography - Features, Ocean waves, currents, tides & Tsunamis, Temperature & Salinity distribution, marine resources • Soils - Classification, distribution, erosion & Conservation Continents - Major physical features and landforms • Map based questions from world (rivers, lakes, city, oceans etc.) Physical Geography of India • Location: Latitude, Longitude • Northern Mountains, Plains of India, Peninsular Plateau and Islands of India. • Himalayan and Peninsular Drainage System • Spatial and temporal distribution of temperature, pressure, winds and rainfall • Indian Monsoon: mechanism, onset and variability; spatial and temporal variations • Climatic Regions of India • Classification of Soils • Problems of Soil and Conservation • Forests and their distribution, Forest Conservation Map Based Questions from India (Location of state, city, river, lakes, important places including Ramsar sites, Biosphere Reserves, Wildlife Sanctuaries and National Parks)
9.	January 4, 2025	Test 1-8 Revision
10.	January 5, 2025	November 1-15, 2024 – Current Affairs World Economic and Human Geography Natural resources and mineral resources and distribution of key natural resources across the world • Agriculture and agro-climatic regions • Industry and location factors • Infrastructure • World Population, density & distribution, races & tribes, settlements & migration • Map Based Questions from World (Location of state, city, minerals, industries etc.) Indian Geography Agriculture typology and major Crops grown in India • Agro-Climatic Regions • Land Reforms and Land use pattern • Animal Husbandry, Fisheries and Aquaculture • Water Resources Availability and potential: Lakes, rivers, dams, power and irrigation projects, wetlands and inter-linking of rivers • Mineral Resources classification and distribution • Energy Resources conventional and non-conventional resources • Population and Growth trends - density, sex ratio, literacy, tribes and racial groups in India
11.	January 12, 2025	November 15-30, 2024 – Current Affairs India under East India Company’s Rule Administration • Struggle among European powers in India • Regulating Acts and Charter Acts: Regulating Act of 1773, Pitt’s India Act 1773 and Charter acts of 1784, 1793, 1813,1833, 1853 • Indian Kingdoms in 18th century: Marathas, Punjab, Mysore, Hyderabad etc. • British Expansion policy: Doctrine of lapse, Subordinate alliance etc. • Economic policies and their impact • Education Policies • Works of British Governor Generals • Socio - Religious Reform Movements in the 19th century India: Brahmo Samaj, Arya Samaj, Theosophical Society, Ramakrishna Movement, Muslim reform movements, Parsi reform movements, Sikh Reform Movements etc. • The Great Revolt of 1857 • Changes in Indian Administration after 1858- GOI ACT 1858, Councils Act, 1861, 1892 • Growth of Political Ideas and Political Organisations (up to 1885) • Foundation of the Indian National Congress • Moderate Phase (1885 – 1904) Miscellaneous & Other Dimensions (18th Century-1904) • Tribal Movements • Peasants Movement • Working Class Movement • Dalit Movements • Women movements • Role of Press and Publications • Role of Business groups • Foreign policies of British India • Miscellaneous: Reforms / Acts / Committee, Congress Sessions, Governor –General Viceroys etc.
12.	January 19, 2025	December 1-15, 2024 – Current Affairs • The rise of Extremism or Neo-Nationalism • The first phase of Revolutionary Terrorism • Partition of Bengal and the Swadeshi Movement • The Surat Split • The Foundation of All-India Muslim League • The Morley-Minto Reforms or the Indian Councils Act, 1909 • The Delhi Durbar and the Annulment of Partition of Bengal (1911) • The Lucknow Pact (1916) • The Home Rule Movement • Montague Declaration (1917) • Montague-Chel msford Reforms or the Government of India Act, 1919 • The Beginning of the Gandhian Era • The Khilafat Movement (1920-22) and Non-Cooperation Movement • The Swarajya Party • The Left Movement • The second phase of Revolutionary and Terrorist Movement • Anti-Simon Commission Agitation (1928-29) • Nehru Report, 1928 • Fourteen Points of Jinnah • The Lahore Session, 1929 • The Civil Disobedience Movement (The first phase) • The Dandi March, March 12, 1930 — March 5, 1931 • Gandhi-Irwin Pact, 1931 • Second Round Table Conference, 1931 • Second Phase of Civil Disobedience Movement • Third Round Table Conference, 1932 • The Government of India Act, 1935 • Provincial Elections and Formation of popular Ministries in Provinces, 1937 • Other Political Developments, 1934-39 • The Struggle in the Princely States: The Praja Mandal Movement – • Communalism: Different phases and forms of communalism in British India • The Second World War and the National Movement • The August Offer 1940 • The Individual Satyagraha 1940-41 • The Cripps Proposal, 1942 • The Quit India Movement, I942 • Subhas Bose and Indian National Army • Rajagopalachari Formula & Deasi Liaqat plan • Wavell Plan and Simla Conference 1945 • General Elections in India, 1945 • Naval Mutiny: 1946 • The Constituent Assembly • Attlee's Declaration • The Indian Independence Act, 1947 • Partition
13.	January 26, 2025	December 15-30, 2024 – Current Affairs Polity – State Legislature
14.	February 1, 2025	REVISION TEST 2- Test 1-13
15.	February 2, 2025	January 1-15, 2025 – Current Affairs Polity – Center – State Relations
16.	February 9, 2025	January 15-30, 2025 – Current Affairs Constitutional Bodies • Election Commission • Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) • State Public Service Commission (SPSC) • Finance Commission • CAG • Attorney general of India • Advocate general of India • Special officer for Linguistic Minorities • National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) • National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) • National Commission for Backward Castes (NCBC) • Provisions related to Language • Rights and Liabilities of the government • National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution • Co-operative societies • Tribunals Non-Constitutional Bodies • NITI Aayog • NHRC, Governing Council, SHRC, CIC, SIC, CVC, CBI, Lokpal, Lokayukta, NCPCR etc. Elections and political parties Problems and processes • Electoral politics • Representation of People's Act • Working of the political system since independence Governance • Good Governance • e-Governance • Transparency & Accountability • RTI, Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption • Civil Society, People participation • Reforms: Police Reform, Administrative Reform, Judicial Reform, Political Reform etc. • Social Audit • Public Policy: Making, Implementation, Evaluation and monitoring • Public Sector Management, Regulatory framework • Public-private partnerships (PPP) • Rights Issues etc.
17.	February 16, 2025	Current Affairs Related to environment – April 2024 – August 2024. Environment and its components Ecology and Functions of an ecosystem Biodiversity • Terrestrial ecosystem • Aquatic ecosystem • Basic Concepts • Plant and Animal Diversity • Marine Organisms • Threat to Biodiversity • Protected Area Network: National parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, Biosphere reserves, Reserved and protected forests, Conservation and community reserves, Village and panchayat Forests, Private protected areas, Conservation areas • Bioprospecting, Biosafety, Biopiracy, etc Initiatives related to Biodiversity and its Conservation Biodiversity Laws, treaties, conventions, etc.- domestic and international.
18.	February 23, 2025	Current Affairs Related to environment –August 2024 – December 2024. Environmental laws and policies other than biodiversity related (Domestic and International) • Institutional and Organizational mechanisms • Environmental Acts and Policies, Conventions, Treaties and Alliances, etc. • Environmental conventions • Mitigation Strategies • India & Climate Change Environmental Monitoring and Impact Assessment Environmental pollution • Pollutants • Air pollution • Water Pollution • Soil Pollution • Noise Pollution • Radioactive pollution • E-Waste • Solid Waste Environmental Concepts related to: • Climate Change • Acidification • Eutrophication • Ozone Depletion Energy Resources • Non-Renewable • Renewable: Solar, Wind, Hydel, Geothermal, Biomass, Others • Energy Conservation
19.	March 2, 2025	February 1-15, 2025 Current Affairs Ancient and Medieval Indian History PRE-HISTORIC TIMES § Periodization of Indian Pre History § Sources of Pre History § Palaeolithic Or Old Stone § Mesolithic Or Middle Stone Age § Neolithic Age Or New Stone Age § Chalcolithic Age § Major Chalcolithic Cultures § Early Iron Age § Geographical Distribution and Characteristics INDUS VALLEY CIVILIZATION § IVC Geography and Archaeological Findings Major cities Town Planning § IVC Society and Culture Script and Language Crafts Religions Seals and Images § IVC Economy Harappan Trade Agriculture Domestication of animals Weights and Measures § Decline of Harappan Culture RIG VEDIC PERIOD § Sources for Reconstructing Vedic Society and Culture § Geography of the Rig Vedic Period - Area of Settlement § Political Organisation and Evolution of Monarchy § Social Organization § Economy § Religious Practices and Culture LATER VEDIC PERIOD § Geography of the later Vedic Phases - Area of Settlement § Political System § Social Organisation and Varna System § Economy § Religious Practices and Culture JAINISM § Birth and Life of Mahavira (540- 468 B.C.) § Teachings of Mahavira § Organisation and Sects of Jainism § Literature of Jainism § Councils, Spread and Royal Patrons BUDDHISM § Birth and Life of Buddha (563-483 BC) § Teachings of Buddha § Organisation and Sects of Buddhism § Literature of Buddhism § Councils, Spread of and Royal Patronage § Causes for the Decline MAHAJANAPADAS PERIOD § Republics and Monarchies § 16 Mahajanapadas § Magadha § Key Dynasties Haryanka dynasty Shishunaga Dynasty Nanda Dynasty § Persian Invasions § Alexander’s Invasion § Society and Rise of urban centres § Economy § System of Administration MAURYAN EMPIRE § Sources: Inscriptions and Sites and Literary Sources (The Arthasastra) § Rulers and Political History of the Mauryas Chandragupta and Bindusara Megasthenes Asoka and His Successors § Asoka’s Inscriptions and Sites § Asokan Reign § Asoka and Buddhism § Asoka Policy of Dhamma § Mauryan Administration § Foreign Relations § Decline of the Mauryas POST-MAURYAN INDIA § Society: Evolution of Jatis § Satavahanas § Sungas and Kanvas § Sakas § Kushanas § Kanishka GUPTA PERIOD § Sources of Gupta Rule § Rulers and Political history of Guptas Chronology § Foreign Travellers Visit – Fahien’s Visit § Gupta Administration § Other Important Dynasties § Society Religion and Culture § Urban centres in Gupta period § Economy § Science and Technology § Literature § Later Guptas § Other Important Dynasties HARSHAVARDHANA PERIOD § Harsha Military Conquests § Harsha and Buddhism § Administration § Society and Culture § Economy SANGAM PERIOD (SOUTH INDIAN DYNASTIES) § Sangam Literature § South Indian Dynasties Cholas Cheras Pandyas § Sangam Polity, Society and Culture § Economy of Sangam Period § Foreign Dynasties § Commercial Contacts with the Outside World § Schools of Art MAJOR DYNASTIES (750-1200) OF EARLY MEDIEVAL INDIA § The Pratiharas (8th to 10th Century) § The Palas (8th to 11th Century) § The Tripartite Conflict § The Senas (11th to 12th Century) § The Rajaputas § Pallavas § Chalukyas § Rashtrakutas § Indian Feudalism § Administration § Society and Culture § Economy and the decline of Trade CHOLAS AND OTHER SOUTH INDIAN KINGDOMS § Chola Rulers and Political History § Chola Administration § Socio-Economic Life § Education and Literature § The Cheras (9th to 12th Century) § The Yadavas (12th to 13th Century) § Contact with South-East Asia EARLY MUSLIM INVASIONS § The Arab Conquest of Sindh § Mahmud of Ghazni § Muhammad Ghori THE DELHI SULTANATE (1206-1526 AD) § Slave Dynasty § Khalji Dynasty (1290-1320 AD) § Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1414 AD) § Provincial Kingdoms and Resistance by Indian Chiefs § Sayyid Dynasty § Lodi Dynasty § Attacks by Mongolas and other Turks § Administration § Economy § Urbanization § Society and Culture § Scientific Knowledge and legal System § Challenges leading to the decline of the Sultanate STRUGGLE FOR EMPIRE IN NORTH INDIA (AFGHANS, RAJPUTS AND MUGHALS) § Struggle between Ibrahim Lodi and Babur § The Battle of Panipat § Babur’s problems after the Battle of Panipat § Struggle with RanaSanga § Problems of the Eastern Areas and the Afghans § Babur’s Contribution and Significance of his Advent into India § Humayun and the Afghans § Early Activities of Humayun, and the Tussle with Bahadur Shah § The Gujarat Campaign § The Bengal Campaign, and Struggle with Sher Khan THE ESTABLISHMENT OF THE NORTH INDIAN EMPIRE § Social and Political Background of Bihar and the Rise of Sher Shah to Power § The Sur Empire (1540-56) § Contributions of Sher Shah § Coinage § Architecture CONSOLIDATION AND EXPANSION OF THE EMPIRE – AKBAR § Conflict with the Afghans - Hemu § 2nd Battle of Panipat § Struggle with the Nobility: Bairam Khan’s Regency; Revolt of Uzbek Nobles § Early Expansion of the Empire (1560-76) - Malwa, Garh-Katanga, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Eastern India § Relations with the Rajputs - Growth of a Composite Ruling Class § Rebellions, and Further Expansion of the Empire in the North West STATE AND GOVERNMENT UNDER AKBAR § Akbar’s Concept of Suzerainty § Structure of Government, Central and Provincial -the Vikalat, the Central Ministries, Provincial § Government, District and Local Government § The Working of Government - the Ruler, Land-Revenue System, the Dahsala System, the Mansabdari System and the Army AKBAR’S RELIGIOUS VIEWS § Relations with the Ulama and Social Reforms § The Early Phase (1556-73) § The Second Phase (1573-80) - the Ibadat Khana § Debates - the Mahzar - Breach with Orthodox § Ulama - Re-organisation of Madadd-i-Maash Grants § Third or Final Phase - Din-i-Ilahi - State § Policies and religious toleration THE DECCAN AND THE MUGHALS (UP TO 1657) § The Deccani States up to 1595 § Mughal Advance towards the Deccan § Mughal Conquest of Berar, Khandesh and Parts of Ahmadnagar § Rise of Malik Ambar Mughal Attempt at Consolidation (1601-27) § Extinction of Ahmadnagar,Acceptance of Mughal § Suzerainty by Bijapur and Golconda § Shah Jahan and the Deccan (1636-57) § Cultural Contribution of the Deccani States FOREIGN POLICY OF THE MUGHALS § Akbar and the Uzbeks § The Question of Qandahar and Relations with Iran § Shah Jahan’s Balkh Campaign § Mughal - Persian Relations - the Last Phase INDIA IN THE FIRST HALF OF THE SEVENTEENTH CENTURY § Jahangir’s Accession - his Early Difficulties § Territorial Consolidation and Expansion of the Empire - Mewar, East India and Kangra § NurJahan, and the NurJahan ‘Junta’ The Rebellions of Shah Jahan, and the coup de main of Mahabat Khan § Jahangir as a Ruler § State and Religion in the First Half of the Seventeenth Century § Shah Jahan - Consolidation and Expansion of the Empire § Evolution of the Mughal Ruling Class and the Mansabdari System CLIMAX AND CRISIS OF THE MUGHAL EMPIRE: THE MARATHAS AND THE DECCAN § Rise of the Marathas - Early Career of Shivaji § Treaty of Purandar - the Agra Visit § Aurangzeb and the Deccani States (1658-87) § Marathas and the Decean (1687-1707) § Assessment of Aurangzeb and the Jagirdari Crisis THE MARATHA AND OTHER INDIAN STATES AND SOCIETY IN THE 18TH CENTURY § The Marathas and their Policy of Expansion § The Marathas and Nizam-ul-Mulk § The Maratha Advance into Gujarat and Malwa § The Maratha Advance into Doab and Punjab: § First Phase (1741-52); Second Phase (1752-61); § Third Battle of Panipat § Shivaji (1627-1680) § Shivaji’s administration § Successors of Shivaji § The Peshwas (1713-1818) § Other Indian States ( The Bhonsles The Gaikwads Holkars Sindhias) § Economic Condition in 18th Century § Social and Cultural Life VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE § Sources § Political History § Administration § Social and Cultural Life § Economic Condition § Conflicts with the Bahmani Kingdom REGIONAL STATES IN THE MEDIEVAL PERIOD § Regional States of North and South India (Bahmani, Bengal, Avadh, The Sikhs, Rajput States Jats Hyderabad Mysore) § Social and Cultural Conditions § Economic Conditions § Military Conditions NORTHERN INDIA IN THE FIRST HALF OF THE EIGHTEENTH CENTURY § Bahadur Shah I, and the Beginning of the Struggle For Wizarat § Rajput Affairs § Marathas and the Deccan – Accentuation of the Party Struggle § Struggle for ‘New’ Wizarat: Zulfiqar Khan and Jahandar Shah (1712-13) § The Saiyid Brothers’ Struggle for ‘New’ Wizarat § The Saiyid ‘New’ Wizarat § The Wizarat of M. Amin Khan and Nizam-ul-Mulk § Rise of Regional States, Beginning of Foreign Invasions of India (1725-48) SOCIETY-STRUCTURE AND GROWTH § Rural Society § Towns and Town Life § Artisans and Master-Craftsmen § Women § Servants and Slaves § Standard of Living § The Ruling Classes - Nobility, Rural Gentry § The Middle Strata § The Commercial Classes ECONOMIC LIFE-PATTERNS AND PROSPECTS § Inland Trade § Overseas Trade - Role of Foreign Trading § Companies - Position of Indian Merchants Over-land Trade § The Mughal State and Commerce § Trend of India’s Economy and Prospects during the First Half of the Eighteenth Century Art & Culture Architecture: Indus Valley Civilization, The Mauryan Architecture, The Sungas, Kushanas, Satavahanas & Guptas, The Temple Architecture, Indo-Islamic Architecture, Modern Architecture • Sculpture: Indian Sculpture and Different schools of Art • Indian Paintings: Historical development - Wall Paintings, Cave and Mural Paintings, Miniature Paintings, Mughal Paintings, Rajput Paintings, Folk Paintings, Other Paintings, Modern Indian Paintings & Personalities Religion and Philosophy • Religion: Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism, Islam, Christianity, Zoroastrianism, Judaism Philosophy: Six Schools of Philosophy, Ajivika, Lokayata etc. • Indian Music: Classical Music, Hindustani Music, Carnatic Music, Folk Music Tradition • Indian Dance: Classical Dance forms in India, Folk Dances, Modern Dance in India • Puppetry and Theatre: Different forms of Puppetry in India, Theatres in India: Folk Theatre, Modern Theatre, People Associated with Theatres, Indian Cinema and Circus • Language & Literature: Indian Language, Indian Literature • Fairs, Festivals and Craft: Religious Festivals, Secular Festivals (States & UT’s), Art & Crafts • Science & Technology, Ancient, Science & Technology, Medieval Science & Technology, Famous Personalities in Ancient and Medieval India Medieval India Promotion and Preservation of Indian Heritage: Indian Word Heritage Sites, Cultural Heritage Sites, Natural Heritage Sites, Important Institutions • Early Medieval Period: North India and South India • Sultanate Period: The Delhi Sultanate, Vijayanagar & other Kingdoms, Religious Movements, Bhakti Movement, Sufi Movement • Mughal Period (Brief History, Salient Features, Social, Economics, Religious and Cultural conditions of all the above)
20.	March 9, 2025	REVISION TEST 3 - Test 15-19
21.	March 16, 2025	February 15-28, 2025 Current Affairs National Income Accounting: • Concepts: GDP, GNP, Market Price and Factor Cost, NNP, NDP, transfer payments, National income at FC, Personal Income, disposable income, factors affecting national income, net foreign facto income Measurement of national income: value added method, income method, expenditure method, Application of various methods, Base year, GDP deflator • Debates around GDP and other indices Money and Banking • Money: Definition, Functions and significance, Evolution of Money, Money supply in India and factors affecting it • Banking: ◦ Need of banks, Function, Commercial Banks ◦ Central Bank: Importance, functions, Structure, Policy tools, Monetary Policy (CRR, SLR, OMO, Repo and Rev Repo, MSF etc.) ◦ Banking Reforms Inflation and Employment • Inflation: Definition, Inflationary Gap and Inflationary Process, Inflation Cycles: Demand Pull Inflation, Cost Push Inflation, Causes of Inflation, Inflation Control measures • Unemployment: Types of Unemployment: Structural, Seasonal, Frictional, Cyclical, Nature of Unemployment in India Government budgeting and Fiscal Policy Budgeting: Evolution of Budgeting, Institutions and Laws, The Union Budget: Components - Revenue Account, Capital Account, Measures of Government Deficit etc., Weaknesses in the Budgetary Process • Fiscal Policy: Public Finance - Role and Importance, Public Expenditure - Revenue and Capital, Development and Non-Developme nt, Public Revenue - Sources of Revenue, Taxes: Classification, Direct and Indirect, Specific and Ad Valorem, Social and Economic Objectives of Taxes, Objectives of Taxation, GST, d.) Public Debt, Deficit Financing • Capital Markets Basic Terms and Concepts, Equity and debt Instruments, Primary market and Secondary markets etc.
22.	March 23, 2025	March 1-15, 2025 Current Affairs Agriculture Recent trends in Agriculture Sector, • Cropping System and Pattern; • Agricultural Marketing and Reforms; • Agricultural Research; • Sustainable Agriculture; • Animal Husbandry • PDS • Farm distress and government initiatives Industrial Sector • Industrial Policies, • Licensing • MSME • Labour Reforms • Companies Act • Make in India, Skill India • Challenges in Industrial development • Organised and unorganised sector • PPP, Investment models • Recent initiatives taken by the govt., etc. Services • Insurance • Aviation • Tourism • Issues and potential of services sector • Government policies etc. • Five-year Plans: Priorities and Performance, Issues related to planning • Economic Policies till 1991 • Economic Reforms since 1991: End of license Raj, Liberalization, Privatisation and Globalisation, FDI, FII, issues, challenges etc. • Infrastructure: IT, Communication, Urbanisation, Transport, Mining, etc. • Foreign Trade of India: Trade Policy, Product wise trade, Region wise trade, Subsidy boxes, WTO related issues and India, Intellectual Property Rights, External Sector and Currency Exchange rate • Balance of Payments: Deﬁnition, Current and Capital Accounts, Convertibility, Items Included in BoP, BoP and BoT. • International Trade and Bodies: IMF: Purpose and Objectives, Organization and Functions, Working and Evaluation, IMF and Underdeveloped Countries, SDR's, Reforms etc., World Bank, Bilateral and Regional Cooperation.
23.	March 30, 2025	March 15-30, 2025 Current Affairs Physical Sciences – Physics and Chemistry PHYSICS Measurement and Measuring Instruments Physical Quantities and Units, SI System of Units, Fundamental Units of SI System, Unit Prefixes, Rules and Conventions for Writing SI Units, Measuring Mass, Accuracy in Measurements Motion State of Rest and Motion, Types of Motion, Distance and Displacement, Uniform and Non-Uniform Motion, Speed, Velocity and Acceleration, Graphical Representation of Motion along a Straight Line, Equations of Motion, Centripetal Acceleration and Centripetal Force, Centrifugal Force, Laws of Motion, Force and Motion, Inertia, Linear Momentum, Newton s Laws of Motion, Newton s Second Law of Motion, Impulse, Newton s Third Law of Motion, Principle of Conservation of Linear Momentum, Rocket Propulsion, Gravitation, Mass and Weight, Apparent Weight Fluids Thrust and Pressure, Pressure in fluids, Atmospheric pressure, Pascal s Law, Density, Buoyancy Archimedes Principle, Laws of flotation Electricity Electric charges, Electric current, Electric circuit diagram, Effects of electric current, Types of current, Safe handling of electrical energy, Electric Potential and Potential Difference, Ohm s Law, Resistance of a Material, Electrical Resistivity Electrical Conductivity, System of Resistors Heating Effect of Current, Electric Power, Domestic Electric Circuits, LED Bulb, LED Television Magnetism Magnetism and Electromagnetism, Magnetic field (B), Magnetic Field Lines, Magnetic effect of current, Force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field, Force on parallel current carrying conductors, Electric motor, Electromagnetic Induction, Electric generator, Transformer, Applications of Electromagnets Light Reflection of light, Curved Mirrors, Image Formed by Curved Mirrors, Real and Virtual Image Concave Mirror, Convex Mirror, Speed of light, Total Internal Reflection, Properties of Light Refraction of Light, Refraction of a Composite Light-Dispersion of Light, Types of scattering of Lenses, Images Formed Due to Refraction Through a Convex and Concave Lens, Refraction Through a Convex Lens, Applications of Convex Lenses, Refraction Through a Concave Lens Applications of Concave Lenses, Lens Formula, Magnification of a Lens Lens Maker s Formula, Power of a Lens, Differences between a Convex Lens and a Concave Lens, Human Eye, Defects in Eye, Microscope, Telescope Heat Effects of Heat, Transfer of Heat, Concept of temperature, Specific Heat capacity, Heat capacity or Thermal capacity, Change of state, Latent Heat, Temperature, Thermal Energy, Effect of Heat Energy, Fundamental Laws of Gases, Gases Sound Production of sound, Propagation of sound waves, Characteristics of a sound wave, Distinguishing different sounds, Speed of sound, Reflection of sound, Echo, Reverberation, Ultrasonic sound or Ultrasound, SONAR, Electrocardiogram (ECG), Structure of human ear, Doppler Effect Universe Building Block of the Universe, The Solar System, Orbital Velocity, Time period of a Satellite, Kepler s Laws, International Space Station Nuclear Physics Radioactivity, Alpha, Beta and Gamma Rays, Nuclear Fission, Nuclear Fusion, Uses of Radioactivity, Safety Measures, Nuclear Reactor CHEMISTRY Matter Around Us Kinetic Particle Theory of Three States of Matter-Solid, Liquid and Gases, Effect of Temperature on Movement of Particles, Changes in States of Matter and the Kinetic Particle Theory - Melting, Freezing, Boiling, Evaporation, Sublimation, Effect of Pressure on Gases, Classification of Matter Based on Composition, Element - Matter Around Us, Compound - Matter Around Us Differences between Mixtures and Compounds, Types of Mixtures, Colloidal Solutions, Separation of Mixtures, Solutions in Day-To-Day Life Atomic Structure Structure of Atoms, Discovery of Nucleus, Discovery of Neutrons, Isotopes, Atom and Atomic Mass, Molecule and Molecular Mass, Difference Between Atoms and Molecules, Mole Concept Percent Composition, Avogadro Hypothesis, Applications of Avogadro s Law Periodic classification of Elements Early Concepts of Classification of Elements, Modern Periodic Table, Metals, Non-Metals and Metalloids, Alloys, Modern Periodic Law, Modern Periodic Table, Periodic Trends in Properties Metallurgy, Occurrence of Ores, Properties of Metals and Corrosion Chemical bonding & Reactions Types of chemical bond, Oxidation, Reduction and Redox reactions, Types of Chemical Reactions, Rate of a Chemical Reaction, Factors influencing the rate of a reaction, State of Equilibrium, Ionic Product of Water, pH Scale, Role of pH in Everyday Life, Acids, Bases and Salts Carbon and its Compounds Compounds of Carbon – Classification, Special Features of Carbon compounds, Carbon compounds in everyday life, Ethanol, Ethanoic acid, Organic Compounds in Daily Life, Soaps and Detergents, Plastics - Catenated long chain carbon compounds Applied Chemistry & Bio Organic Compounds Nano chemistry, pharmaceutical chemistry: Drugs, Chemistry of Proteins, Carbohydrates and Fats, Applications of Chemistry
24.	April 6, 2025	Science and Tech Current Affairs – last one year. Life Sciences – Botany and Zoology · Origin of Life and Cells § Cell Structure § Membranes § Cell-Cell Interactions § Energy and Metabolism § Respiration § Cell Division § Sexual Reproduction · Genetics § Inheritance § DNA, The Genetic Material § Gene Expression § Gene Regulation § Mutation § Recombinant DNA Technology § RNA Interference § DNA finger and Footprinting · Classification of Living Things § Classification and Domains of Life § General Biology/Classification of Living Things/Viruses § Prokaryotes & Eukaryotes § Protista, Plants, Fungi, Animals § Important plants in daily use and other useful plants and Their Families · Bacteria and Viruses § Basic Structure and Function § Uses, Diseases · Evolution of Life § Evolution - theories § Concepts · Tissues § Plant and Animal tissues · Plant Morphology and Physiology § Root, Stem, Leaf – basic structure and Functions § Modifications § Photosynthesis · Endocrine System § Hypothalamus § Pineal body (epiphysis) § Pituitary gland (hypophysis) § Thyroid § Adrenal glands § Reproductive glands · Respiratory System § External and Internal Respiration § Respiratory system in Plants § Respiratory System in Insects § Respiratory System in Humans and Animals · The Transport System in Organisms § Transport system in a Cell § Transport System in Plants § Transport System in Animals § Blood Vascular System § The Lymphatic System · Skeletal and Muscular Systems § Bone and Skeleton System (Osteology) § Ligaments (Syndesmology) § Muscular System (Myology) § Vertebrates · Reproductive System § Asexual Reproduction in Plants § Asexual Reproduction in Animals § Sexual Reproduction in Plants § Sexual Reproduction in Animals § Sexual Reproduction in Humans · Excretory System § Excretory products § Excretion in plants § Excretion in Animals § Osmoregulation, ADH and formation of Urine in Animals · Nutrition § Classification by Source of Energy and Carbon § Plant Nutrition § Animal Nutrition § Human Diet § The Digestive System § Photosynthesis · Health and Immunity § Communicable, Non-Communicable and Neglected tropical diseases § Types of Immunity, Monoclonal Antibodies · Economic Zoology § Beneficial animals: Corals - Earthworm - Vermiculture § Beneficial insects - Prawns - Lobsters - Crabs - Pearl oysters - Fishes - Guano - Aquarium - Vivarium. § Harmful animals: Disease causing organisms - Vectors - Poisonous organisms - Fouling organisms - Pests. Recent Developments
25.	April 13, 2025	Science and Technology + World Organisations in News + World Politics. REVISION TEST 4 - Test 20-24
26.	April 20, 2025	FULL LENGTH TEST
27.	April 27, 2025	FULL LENGTH TEST
28.	May 4, 2025	FULL LENGTH TEST
29.	May 11, 2025	FULL LENGTH TEST
30.	May 18, 2025	FULL LENGTH TEST

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Prelims 2025 is around the corner. Most aspirants are by now in the preparation mode - reading books and newspapers, making notes, taking classes, attempting mock tests and most importantly preparing themselves psychologically for this exam. Raja Sir's Cracking IAS has been one of the foremost UPSC coaching institutes in India since 2005, would like to share some advice garnered from its years of experience helping thousands of aspirants.

The first place to look, whether one is a beginner or a repeat attempter, is always the previous years question papers. The goal here is to familiarize with the pattern of questions - what the UPSC wants the candidate to know and what information is relevant for this exam. This perspective will assist aspirants whenever they are preparing from any reading material and more importantly will help them overcome doubts regarding what the UPSC might or might not ask from any given topic.

After an aspirant is fairly familiar with the previous years pattern of questions, he or she may proceed with covering or revising the NCERT books. If time does not permit a full reading of these books, the aspirant may solve Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) based on the NCERT books and make notes from the solutions to these questions.

The third place where an aspirant must go is the daily newspaper. Reading a newspaper everyday is very important - it helps with current affairs and general knowledge, with understanding various nuances of any given topic, and most importantly reading the newspaper daily creates and sustains the habit of reading.

Three formulas one can follow while preparing for Prelims:

Cover as widely as possible - revise regularly what has been covered
Maintain a proper balance between memorization and understanding - both are needed
Quality of coverage is more important than the quantity of material covered

A question that frequently pops up here is whether to continue preparing the Optional once one has entered the month of March. There are two ways to look at this. For beginners, or first attempters, the foremost goal should be to clear the Prelims. Clearing the Prelims provides a great boost to a new aspirant's civil service journey. Thus, if preparing the Optional hampers the preparation for Prelims, then beginners should absolutely stop preparing it at once. However, for those who have already cleared the Prelims in earlier attempts and want to excel in the Mains examination, the advice here is to continue preparing the Optional, giving it at least 10 to 20 per cent of the total preparation time (or writing one answer daily at the least). For such aspirants, dedicating only the months of April and May for Prelims should suffice.

Another advice here is to follow a Mock Test Series. This helps in three ways - first, it instills punctuality or a routine in those who are in need of it; second, if the mock tests are taken in the classroom, it helps in simulating what the actual exam could be like; finally, well developed mock test papers cover topics very closely to what might be asked in the Prelims and therefore attempting them could actually better the chances of getting answers correct on the day of exam.

In conclusion, Raja Sir's Cracking IAS would like to share three very important points. One is to cut down on screen time - phones, TVs, computers - use these as far as possible, only to prepare for the exam. The next is to learn how to unitask - doing one thing at a time with full concentration is better for this exam. The last point here is perhaps the most important - learning to enjoy the process of preparing for the UPSC. It is well known that if someone enjoys doing something, the rate of success increases exponentially, and for any aspirant who enjoys the process of preparing for the UPSC Civil Service, the probability for success is very high.

Previous Year Questions - General Studies

Q1. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghika , located?

(a) Andhra

(b) Gandhara

(d) Magadha

Answer: A

Dharanikota is a town near Amaravati in the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh in India, It is the site of the ancient Dhanyakataka which was the capital of the Satavahana kingdom which ruled in the Deccan around the 1st to 3rd centuries A.D.

Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh’s Guntur district is also known as Dhanyakataka or Dharanikota and was the site of a great Buddhist Stupa built in pre-Mauryan times, ruled by Satavahana kings.

Q2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements :

The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: B

Stupa, a Buddhist commemorative monument usually housing sacred relics associated with the Buddha or other saintly persons. Religious buildings in the form of the Buddhist stupa, a dome shaped monument, started to be used in India as commemorative monuments associated with storing sacred relics of the Buddha. Archaeologists in India have observed that a number of early Buddhist stupas or burials are found in the vicinity of much older, pre-historic burials, including megalithic sites. This includes site associated with the Indus Valley civilization where broken Indus-era pottery was incorporated into later Buddhist burials.

Q3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well-known as-

(a) Capital cities

(b) Ports

(d) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

Answer: (b)

Poompuhar is a town in the Mayiladuthurai district in the southern Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It was once a flourishing ancient port city known as Kaveri Poompattinam and Kaveripattinam (not to be confused with modern Kaveripattinam), which for a while served as the capital of the early Chola kings in Tamilakam.

Korkai was the capital, principal center of trade and important port of the Early Pandyan Kingdom. At that time, it was located on the banks of the Tamiraparani River and at the sea coast, forming a natural harbour. Due to excessive sedimentation, the sea has receded about 6 km in the past 2000 years, leaving Korkai well inland today.

Muziris found mention in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea, the bardic Tamil poems and a number of classical sources.It was the major ancient port city of Cheras. Core of the city is situated in the present day Kodungallur, North Paravoor area.

Q4. Which one of the following explains the practice of “Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?

(a) Kings employing women bodyguards.

(b) Learned persona assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters

(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Answer: D

Vatakkiruttal, also Vadakiruthal and vadakiruttal, was a Tamil ritual of fasting till death. It was especially widespread during the Sangam age. The Tamil kings, in order to save their honour, and prestige, were prepared to meet their death facing North (‘Vatakkiruttal’) and never would they turn their back in battle. It was a Tamil martial art. This was either done alone, or as a group with the supporters of the captured king.

Q5. Consider the following dynasties:

Hoysala
Gahadavala
Kakatiya
Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: D

The Hoysala Empire was a Kannadiga power originating from the Indian subcontinent that ruled most of what is now Karnataka between the 10th and the 14th centuries. The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur, but was later moved to Halebidu. The Kakatiya dynasty was a Telugu dynasty that ruled most of eastern Deccan region in present-day India between the 12th and 14th centuries. Their territory comprised much of the present day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, and parts of eastern Karnataka, northern Tamil Nadu, and southern Odisha. Their capital was Orugallu, now known as Warangal. The Seuna, Sevuna, or Yadavas of Devagiri was a Medieval Indiandynasty, which at its peak ruled a kingdom stretching from the Narmada river in the north to the Tungabhadra river in the south, in the western part of the Deccan region. The Yadavas initially ruled as feudatories of the Western Chalukyas. Around the middle of the 12th century, as the Chalukya power waned, the Yadava king Bhillama V declared independence. The Yadava kingdom reached its peak under Simhana II, and flourished until the early 14th century, when it was annexed by the Khalji dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate in 1308 CE. The Gahadavala dynasty also Gahadavalas of Kannauj was a Rajput dynasty that ruled parts of the present-day Indian states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, during 11th and 12th centuries. Their capital was located at Banaras (now Varanasi) in the Gangetic plains, and for a brief period, they also controlled Kannauj.

Q6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs

Literary work : Author

Devi Chandragupta : Bilhana
Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri
Melinda panha : Nagarjuna
Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: C

Devi-Chandraguptam or Devi-Chandragupta is an Indian Sanskrit-language political drama attributed to Vishakhadeva, who is generally identified with Vishakhadatta.

Hammira Mahakavya is a 15th-century Indian Sanskrit epic poem written by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri.

The Milindapanho is a Buddhist text from sometime between 100 BC and 200 AD written by Nagasena. It purports to record a dialogue between the Indian Buddhist sage Nagasena, and the Indo-Greek king Menander of Bactria, who reigned in the 2nd century BC.

Nītivākyāmṛta —The Jaina writer Somadeva of tenth century A.D. writes a treatise on nīti is called Nītivākyāmṛta. He quotes fragments of the metrical works on polity attributed to Atri, Aṅgīras, Kauśika, Garga, Devala, Nārada, Parāśara, Bhāguri, Bhāradvāja, Bhṛgu, Bṛhaspati, Śukra, Vyāsa etc.

Q7. ‘Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects’. The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(d) Vaishnavism

Answer: B

The core belief that souls are not only the property of animal and plant life but also of rocks, running water, and many other natural objects not looked upon as living things is associated with Jainism.

Jainism is an ancient Indian religion that places a strong emphasis on non-violence, compassion, and the principle of ahimsa (non-harming). One of the fundamental teachings in Jainism is the belief in the existence of souls (jivas) in all living beings, including humans, animals, and plants. However, Jain philosophy goes beyond this and extends the concept of souls to non-living entities as well, including rocks, water, and other natural objects. According to Jainism, all entities possess a soul, regardless of whether they are traditionally considered living or not.

This belief in the inherent presence of souls in various natural objects is a unique aspect of Jainism’s worldview and distinguishes it from other major Indian religions such as Buddhism, Vaishnavism, and Shaivism.

Q8. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometers long from the river to the capital city?

(a) Devaraya I

(b) Mallikarjuna

(d) Virupaksha

Answer: A

The large dam across the Tungabhadra River and the canal aqueduct several kilometers away from the capital city in the Vijayanagara Empire were constructed during the reign of King Krishna Deva Raya. Krishna Deva Raya was one of the most famous rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire, and he undertook numerous infrastructure projects to improve the irrigation and agricultural capabilities of his kingdom.

The credit for making the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire one of the biggest cities in the 15th century goes to Deva Raya I. He realized that the scarcity of water supply, both for drinking and for irrigation, was restricting the growth of the royal capital. In c.1410 he had a barrage constructed across the Tungabhadra river and commissioned a 24 km long aqueduct from the Tungabhadra river to the capital.

Q9. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese?

(a) Ahmad Shah

(b) Mahmud Begarha

(d) Muhammad Shah

Answer: C

The ruler of Gujarat who surrendered Diu to the Portuguese was Sultan Bahadur Shah. In 1535, after a long siege, Sultan Bahadur Shah was compelled to surrender the island of Diu to the Portuguese led by Nuno da Cunha. This event marked the beginning of Portuguese control and influence in the region, particularly in the maritime trade routes of the Indian Ocean.

1538 Siege of Diu resulted in the permanent occupation of Diu by Portuguese which lasted till 1961.

Q10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

(a) The Regulating Act

(b) The Pitt’s India Act

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Answer: D

The office of the Governor General of Bengal was designated as the Governor General of India through the Government of India Act of 1833. This act, also known as the Charter Act of 1833, was passed by the British Parliament and granted expanded powers to the Governor General of Bengal, transforming the position into the Governor General of India. Lord William Bentinck was the first Governor General of India under this new designation, serving from 1833 to 1835.

Q11. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(d) Equality before law

Answer: C

Due process refers to just, rational, fair, and fair treatment under the regular judicial process. For instance, the accused must be given the chance to present their own defence before being sentenced.

The “Procedure Established by Law” means that a law duly enacted by the legislature or the concerned body is valid only if the correct procedure has been followed to the letter.

“Due Process of Law” is a doctrine that not only checks if there is a law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also ensures that the law is made fair and just.

Q12. Consider the following statements

Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I1 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

‘Prisons’ is a State subject under the State List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. So, the management and administration of Prisons fall exclusively in the domain of the State Governments.

As per the provisions of Constitution of India, ‘prisons’/ ‘persons detained therein’ is a ‘State’ subject. The responsibility of prison management and prisoners administration solely vests with State Governments who alone are competent to make appropriate legislative provisions in this regard.

The 1894 Act dealt with provisions for accommodation, food, clothing, bedding segregation, and the discipline of prisoners, including solitary confinement. It also laid down provisions for the prisoners’ employment, health, and visits.

Q13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the `Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Answer: C

The primary purpose of a constitution is to establish the framework for governance and define the structure of the government. It outlines the powers and functions of various branches of government, such as the executive, legislative, and judiciary.

While the other options may be important aspects or goals associated with a constitution, such as the creation of political offices and a government (B) or securing social justice, social equality, and social security (D), they do not capture the fundamental role of a constitution in defining and limiting the powers of the government.

Q14. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights? (a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Answer: B

The constitutional amendment in India that was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the fundamental rights is the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.

The Parliament was given unrestrained power to amend any parts of the Constitution, without judicial review. This essentially invalidated the Supreme Court’s ruling in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973. The amendment to article 368, prevented any constitutional amendment from being “called in question in any Court on any ground”. It also declared that there would be no limitation whatever on the constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.

The 42nd Amendment Act is often referred to as the “Mini Constitution” or the “Constitution of Indira.” It was enacted during the period of emergency rule in India and introduced several significant changes to the Constitution. One of the main objectives of the amendment was to curtail judicial interpretations that expanded the scope and enforcement of fundamental rights.

The amendment sought to restrict the power of the judiciary and grant more authority to the Parliament in matters related to constitutional interpretation. It added certain provisions like Article 31-C, which aimed to limit the judicial review of laws affecting socio-economic rights. The amendment also introduced changes to the powers of the President, the Prime Minister, and the state governments.

The 42nd Amendment Act was met with criticism for its perceived erosion of judicial independence and dilution of fundamental rights. Subsequently, many provisions of the amendment were revised or repealed by subsequent amendments, restoring some of the original balance between the judiciary and the executive.

Q15. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India :

The National Commission for Backward Classes
The National Human Rights Commission
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: A

The National Commission for Backward Classes is an Indian constitutional body under the jurisdiction of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India established through Constitution Act, 2018 (also called, 102nd Amendment Act, 2018) this amendment act in the constitution to make it a constitutional body under Article 338B of the Indian Constitution. It was constituted pursuant to the provisions of the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993

The National Human Rights Commission of India is a statutory body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993. It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government

The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission of India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. Its head office is in New Delhi. The commission is headed by a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Q16. Consider the following statements :

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d)

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of the decision become invalid: This statement is incorrect. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court, it does not render all acts done by the President in the performance of their duties before the date of the decision as invalid. The President’s actions and decisions taken during their tenure remain valid unless specifically declared otherwise.

Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place: This statement is incorrect. The elections for the post of the President of India cannot be postponed solely on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. The President’s election follows a specific schedule and process outlined in the Constitution.

When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent: This statement is incorrect. The Constitution of India does not prescribe specific time limits within which the President has to declare their assent when a bill is presented to them. The President has the power to return a bill for reconsideration, withhold their assent, or give their assent based on their discretion.

Q17. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament Money the following statements :

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill: This statement is correct. The Finance Bill, being a Money Bill, can be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. However, any amendments made by the Rajya Sabha must be accepted or rejected by the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha has the final say on the Finance Bill.

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations: This statement is correct. As per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations for amendments, which are not binding on the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha has the final authority to accept or reject these recommendations.

In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for the Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill: This statement is correct. In the case of a disagreement between the two houses on a Money Bill, there is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve the matter. The decision of the Lok Sabha is considered final. However, if there is a disagreement on a non-Money Bill, including the Finance Bill, a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be called to resolve the disagreement.

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
hunting is not allowed in such area
people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (b)

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest: This statement is correct. When an area is notified as a ‘Community Reserve’, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State or a designated authority becomes responsible for the management and governance of the reserve.
Hunting is not allowed in such area: This statement is correct. In a Community Reserve, hunting is strictly prohibited to protect and conserve wildlife.
People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce: This statement is incorrect. In a Community Reserve, the collection of non-timber forest produce by the local communities may be regulated or restricted to ensure sustainable use and conservation of resources. It is subject to the specific rules and regulations governing the Community Reserve.
People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices: This statement is incorrect. Traditional agricultural practices are generally not allowed within a Community Reserve. The primary focus of a Community Reserve is to conserve biodiversity and natural habitats, which may require restricting agricultural activities to protect the ecological integrity of the area.

Q19. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President: This statement is correct. The notification of an area as a Scheduled Area within a State is done through a Presidential Order. The President has the authority to declare certain areas as Scheduled Areas based on the criteria specified in the Constitution.
The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block: This statement is correct. In a Scheduled Area, the administrative units are organized from the district level to the cluster of villages in the Block. The District is the largest administrative unit, and within the District, there are smaller administrative units such as Blocks and Clusters of villages.
The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States: This statement is incorrect. In reality, it is the Governor of the concerned State who is responsible for submitting annual reports to the President of India, not the Chief Ministers. The Governor acts as the representative of the President in the State and is responsible for reporting on the administration and development activities in the Scheduled Areas to the President through the Union Home Ministry.

Q20. Consider the following statements :

Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration: This statement is correct. The Supreme Court has indeed held in certain judgments that while reservation policies can be implemented under Article 16(4) to provide opportunities to backward classes, they should also be balanced with the consideration of maintaining the efficiency of administration, as stated in Article 335.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’: This statement is incorrect. Article 335 does not provide a specific definition of ‘efficiency of administration’. Instead, it emphasizes the need to balance the claims of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (SC/ST) with the maintenance of efficiency in administration. Article 335 states that the claims of the SC/ST candidates should be taken into consideration in appointments and posts under the State, but without compromising the efficiency of administration.

Q21. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.

Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production: This statement is correct. India does have significant uranium deposits, but its reliance on coal for electricity production is higher compared to uranium. Coal continues to be the primary source of energy for electricity generation in India due to its abundant availability and existing infrastructure.

Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity: This statement is incorrect. While uranium is used as a fuel for nuclear power generation, the level of enrichment required for electricity production is not fixed at 60%. The enrichment level can vary depending on the type of reactor and its design. Typically, for light-water reactors, the enrichment level is around 3-5% uranium-235, not 60%.

Q22. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

This statement is correct. Marsupials, a group of mammals characterized by carrying their young in a pouch, are not naturally found in India. They are primarily found in Australia and nearby regions.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

This statement is incorrect. While some marsupials, such as kangaroos and wallabies, are known to inhabit grassland habitats, they are not limited to montane grasslands. Marsupials can be found in a variety of habitats, including forests, woodlands, and even deserts. Additionally, their survival is not limited to areas without predators, as marsupials have evolved various adaptations to coexist with predators.

Q23. ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

(b) The United Nations Environment Programme

(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer: (a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

The ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (ISSG), which develops the Global Invasive Species Database, belongs to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The IUCN is a global organization dedicated to conserving nature and promoting sustainable development. It provides a platform for governments, NGOs, scientists, and experts to collaborate on conservation efforts and develop strategies to address various environmental challenges.

The ISSG, as a specialist group within the IUCN, focuses specifically on invasive species and their impacts on biodiversity and ecosystems. It works to raise awareness, conduct research, and develop tools and resources related to invasive species management. The Global Invasive Species Database is one of its notable initiatives, providing valuable information on invasive species worldwide.

Therefore, the ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ belongs to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Q24. Consider the following fauna:

Lion-tailed Macaque
Malabar Civet
Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Among the given fauna, two of them are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset:

Lion-tailed Macaque: Lion-tailed Macaques (Macaca silenus) are diurnal primates, which means they are active during the day and rest at night. They are not generally nocturnal or most active after sunset.
Malabar Civet: The Malabar Civet (Viverra civettina) is a nocturnal mammal found in the Western Ghats of India. It is primarily active during the night, making it nocturnal.
Sambar Deer: The Sambar Deer (Rusa unicolor) is a large deer species found in various habitats across India. They are generally crepuscular, which means they are most active during dawn and dusk. While they may be active during the night, they are not strictly nocturnal.

Based on the explanations above, the correct answer is (b) Only two.

Q25. Which of the following organisms perform a waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies

(b) Dragonflies

(d) Wasps

Answer: (c) Honeybees.

Honeybees are known to perform a waggle dance as a means of communication within their colony. This dance is performed by worker bees to indicate the direction and distance to a source of food, such as nectar or pollen. The waggle dance involves the bee moving in a figure-eight pattern while waggling its abdomen and producing buzzing sounds. By observing the direction and intensity of the waggle dance, other worker bees can determine the location of the food source and navigate to it. This behavior is a remarkable example of how honeybees communicate and share information within their colony.

Q.26) Consider the following statements:

Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.
Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
Some mushrooms have biolumi- nescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (d) All four.

Some mushrooms have medicinal properties: Certain mushrooms possess bioactive compounds that exhibit medicinal properties. For example, species like Reishi (Ganoderma lucidum) and Turkey Tail (Trametes versicolor) have been traditionally used for their potential health benefits.
Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties: Certain mushrooms contain psychoactive compounds such as psilocybin and psilocin, which can induce hallucinogenic effects. These mushrooms are often referred to as “magic mushrooms” or “psilocybin mushrooms.”
Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties: Certain species of mushrooms contain natural insecticidal compounds that can be used as a natural alternative to synthetic insecticides. For example, the entomopathogenic fungus Beauveria bassiana is used as a biocontrol agent against insect pests.
Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties: There are certain species of mushrooms, such as the Jack-O’-Lantern mushroom (Omphalotus olearius), that have bioluminescent properties. They emit a faint greenish glow in the dark due to the presence of luciferin-luciferase reaction.

Q.27) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :

They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (a)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian squirrels, such as the Indian palm squirrel (Funambulus spp.), do not build nests by making burrows in the ground. They usually build nests called dreys in tree branches or tree hollows.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Squirrels do not typically store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. They often create small caches in various locations, such as tree hollows or crevices, to store their food for later consumption.

Statement 3 is correct: Indian squirrels, including the Indian palm squirrel, are primarily herbivorous and feed on a diet consisting mainly of plant material such as fruits, nuts, seeds, and tree bark.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) All three.

Q.28) Consider the following statements:

Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All three.

Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures above the boiling point of water. These organisms are known as thermophiles and can withstand and thrive in extreme heat, such as hot springs or deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures below the freezing point of water. These organisms are known as psychrophiles or cryophiles and can survive and reproduce in extremely cold conditions, such as glaciers or Arctic regions.
Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3. These organisms are known as acidophiles and have adapted to acidic conditions, such as acid mine drainage or volcanic areas.

Q.29) Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat

(b) Orangutan

(d) Sloth bear

Answer: (b) Orangutan

Orangutans are known to use tools in their natural behavior, including making tools with sticks to scrape insects from holes in trees or logs of wood. They exhibit remarkable problem-solving abilities and tool use in their foraging activities. This behavior is observed in both wild and captive orangutans and is a demonstration of their intelligence and adaptability.

Q.30) Consider the following:

Aerosols
Foam agents
Fire retardants
Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer is (d) All four.

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are used in the making of all four mentioned substances:

Aerosols: HFCs are commonly used as propellants in aerosol products, such as sprays for personal care, household cleaning, and automotive applications.
Foam agents: HFCs are used as blowing agents in the production of foam materials, including foam insulation, foam packaging, and foam cushions.
Fire retardants: HFCs are used in some fire extinguishing systems and fire retardant formulations.
Lubricants: HFCs are used as lubricants in certain applications, especially in the aerospace industry.

Therefore, HFCs are used in the making of all four substances.

Q.31) Consider the following statements:

Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

.Ans: C

Statement 1 is Correct: The main source of water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum. This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Kolleru lake is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna, fed by two seasonal rivers and a number of drains and channels

Statement 3 is Correct: The Kanwar lake draws water from the confluence of the Gandak, the Bia and the Kareh river, is situated near Manjhaul, 22 km northwest of Begusarai, Bihar.

Q.32) Consider the following pairs:

Port: Well known as

Kamarajar Port: First major port in India registered as a company
Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India
Visakhapatnam: Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Ans: B

Statement 1 is Correct: Kamarajar Port, located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port, Chennai, it is the 12th major port of India, and the first port in India which is a public company.

Statement 2 is Correct: The mega port at Mundra is a major economic gateway that caters to the northern hinterland of India with multimodal connectivity. The deep draft, all-weather port is the largest commercial port in India with state-of-the-art infrastructure.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: Mundra Port, India’s biggest commercial port by volumes, has overtaken state-run Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) to become the country’s largest container gateway by handling 5.65 million twenty-foot equivalent units in FY21.

Q.33) Consider the following trees:

Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
Mahua (Madhuca indica)
Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans: B

Statement 1 is Incorrect: Jackfruit is an evergreen tree characterised by its dense foliage and exudation of latex from above ground plant parts including fruits when

Statement 2 is Correct: Mahua tree is known as Indian Butter Tree. A medium sized to large deciduous tree with a large rounded crown

Statement 3 Is Correct: Teak (Tectona grandis) is a tropical hardwood tree species in the family Lamiaceae. It is a large, deciduous tree that occurs in mixed hardwood forests.

Q.34) Consider the following statements:

India has more arable area than China.
The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans:B

Statement 1 is Correct
Statement 2 is correct: . Irrigated area accounts for nearly 48.8 per cent of the 140 million hectare (mha) of agricultural land in India. China’s irrigation cover is 41% of cultivated area, and India’s is 48%.
Statement 3 is incorrect: China’s productivity in most crops is 50 to 100% higher than India’s

Q.35) Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans

(d) Rann of Kutch

Ans: D

The Rann of Kutch is a large seasonal salt marsh located in the Thar Desert in the state of Gujarat, India. It is a unique ecosystem characterized by vast stretches of saline marshland that gets flooded during the monsoon season and dries up during the rest of the year. The Rann of Kutch was formed due to multiple instances of sea level fluctuations and geological processes over millions of years, resulting in the deposition of salts and minerals in the region.

The other options mentioned, Bhitarkanika Mangroves, Marakkanam Salt Pans, and Naupada Swamp, are also wetland ecosystems but they do not exhibit the same characteristics of extensive marshland resulting from repeated falls in sea level like the Rann of Kutch.

Q.36) Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are of which one of the

rich sources following?

(a) Aluminum

(b) Copper

(d) Titanium

Ans: D

India is endowed with large resources of heavy minerals which occur mainly along coastal stretches of the country and also in inland placers.
Heavy mineral sands comprise a group of seven minerals, viz, ilmenite, leucoxene (brown ilmenite), rutile, zircon, sillimanite, garnet and monazite. Ilmenite (FeO.TiO2 ) and rutile (TiO2 ) are the two chief minerals of titanium.

Hence, option D is correct.

37) About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by –

(a) Argentina

(b) Botswana

(d) Kazakhstan

Ans: C

About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (c) Democratic Republic of the Congo.

The Democratic Republic of the Congo is the largest producer of cobalt globally, accounting for a significant portion of the world’s cobalt supply. Cobalt is a critical component in the production of lithium-ion batteries, which are widely used in electric vehicles and various electronic devices. The country’s rich reserves and favorable geological conditions make it a major player in the global cobalt market.

Q.38) Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon

(b) Nigeria

(d) Uganda

Ans: A

The Congo Basin spans across six countries—Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.
Hence, option A is correct.

Q.39) Consider the following statements:

Amarkantak confluence of Hills are at the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans: D

Amarkantak are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges. Hence,

option 1 is not correct.

Seshachalam Hills are hilly ranges part of the Eastern Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh state, in southeastern India.

The Biligirirangana Hills or Biligirirangan Hills (as referred to in biology and geology

is a hill range situated in south-western Karnataka, at its border with Tamil Nadu (Erode District).

Q.40) With reference to India’s projects connectivity, consider the following statements:

East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans: D

The East-West corridor of the Golden Quadrilateral connects Silchar and Porbandar cities in India.

None of the statements provided are correct regarding India’s connectivity projects. The East-West Corridor under the Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat, not Dibrugarh and Surat. The Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur, India, with Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar, not Chiang Mai. The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor (BCIM EC) connects Kolkata in India with Kunming in China, not Varanasi.

Q.41) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits (InvITs) distributed to their investors is in Infrastructure Investment Trusts exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Recon- struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I -II is correct but Statement is incorrect

Answer: d

Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits (InvITs) distributed to their investors is in Infrastructure Investment Trusts exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable: This statement is incorrect. In Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs), both the interest income and dividend income distributed to the investors are taxable. There is no exemption from tax for interest income from InvITs.

Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’: This statement is incorrect. InvITs are not recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’. This act primarily deals with the securitization and reconstruction of financial assets and enforcement of security interests in relation to loans and borrowings.

Based on the revised explanations, the correct answer is (d) Statement-I is incorrect, and Statement-II is incorrect. I apologize for the confusion caused by the earlier response.

Q.42) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : In the post-pandemic recent past many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.

Statement-II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes: This statement is correct. In the post-pandemic period, as economies recover and inflationary pressures increase, some central banks have indeed raised interest rates to manage inflation and stabilize their economies. These interest rate hikes are implemented as part of monetary policy measures.

Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means: This statement is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Central banks do assume that they have the ability to influence and control inflation through monetary policy tools, including interest rate adjustments. By raising interest rates, central banks aim to curb inflationary pressures by reducing borrowing and spending, thus addressing the rising consumer prices.

Based on the revised explanations, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Q.43) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement-I1: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer : (a)

Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change: This statement is correct. Carbon markets, such as emissions trading or cap-and-trade systems, have emerged as important tools in the fight against climate change. They provide economic incentives for reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promoting the transition to cleaner technologies.

Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State: This statement is the correct explanation for Statement-I. In carbon markets, private sector entities are typically required to purchase or acquire emission allowances or credits to cover their emissions. The revenue generated from the sale of these allowances or credits can be used by the State for various purposes, such as funding climate change mitigation and adaptation initiatives.

Based on the revised explanations, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Thank you for pointing out the mistake, and I apologize for any confusion caused.

Q.44) Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?

(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ of settlement

(b) Oversight payment systems

(d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking Financial Institutions

Answer : (a)

Correct answer: (a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ of settlement

‘Sterilization’ is an activity undertaken by the central bank to offset the impact of its interventions in the foreign exchange market on the domestic money supply. When the central bank intervenes in the foreign exchange market by buying foreign currency, it increases the domestic money supply. To prevent excess liquidity in the economy, the central bank conducts sterilization operations.

One of the key methods of sterilization is through ‘Open Market Operations’ (OMOs), specifically the sale or purchase of government securities. In the case of intervention to buy foreign currency, the central bank can sterilize the increased money supply by selling government securities in the open market, thereby reducing the money available in the economy. Conversely, if the central bank intervenes to sell foreign currency, it can sterilize the reduction in money supply by purchasing government securities.

Therefore, conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ of settlement is considered a part of ‘sterilization’ by the Reserve Bank of India.

Q.45) Consider the following marke

Government Bond Market
Call Money Market
Treasury Bill Market
Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer : (b)

In the given options, only two of them are included in the capital markets:

Government Bond Market: This market involves the buying and selling of government bonds, which are debt securities issued by the government to raise funds. It is an important segment of the capital market as it allows governments to borrow money from investors.
Stock Market: The Stock Market, also known as the equity market or share market, is a market where shares or ownership interests in publicly-traded companies are bought and sold. It is a crucial component of the capital market, allowing companies to raise capital through the issuance of shares, and investors to trade in those shares.

The other two options, Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market, are part of the money market rather than the capital market.

Call Money Market: The Call Money Market is a segment of the money market where banks and financial institutions borrow and lend money for short durations, typically overnight.
Treasury Bill Market: Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term government securities with a maturity period of less than one year. The Treasury Bill Market is a part of the money market where these T-bills are traded.

Q.46) Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?

(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender. their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers

(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Answer: (b)

The Small Farmers, Large Field (SFLF) model is founded on the same principles of aggregation and achieving economies of scale, through strengthening backward and forward integration along the supply chain and lowering costs by synchronizing key agricultural operations from field preparation to harvest.

Q.47) Consider the following statements:

The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer : (c) All three

Gond tribals of Satpura hill ranges in Madhya Pradesh traditionally grow niger on the top of the plateau, where water does not stagnate.But due amarbel (a twining parasitic plant known as Cuscuta chinensis in scientific lexicon) the productivity has declined rapidly due to which assured paddy cultivation has been trending.

Q.48) Consider the investments in the following assets:

Brand recognition
Inventory
Intellectual property
Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer : (c) Only three

The term inventory refers to the raw materials used in production as well as the goods produced that are available for sale. A company’s inventory represents one of the most important assets it has because the turnover of inventory represents one of the primary sources of r

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