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UPSC Prelims 2026 GS Paper I Answer Key

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music ?

(a) Nat Bhairavi

(b) Kamavardhini

(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Option (D) — Dheera Shankarabharanam

Raga Bilawal is the foundational raga of Hindustani music using the Shuddha Swaras (natural notes): Sa Re Ga Ma Pa Dha Ni Sa, corresponding to the Western C major scale.

In Carnatic music, the equivalent Melakarta raga with all Shuddha Swaras is Dheera Shankarabharanam (29th Melakarta).

Nat Bhairavi corresponds to Asavari thaat, Hanumatodi corresponds to Bhairavi thaat, and Kamavardhini corresponds to Marwa thaat in Hindustani music.

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India''s creditworthiness

(b) Providing support to Indian importers

(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Option (A) — Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India''s creditworthiness

The Hilton-Young Commission (Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance, 1926) recommended fixing the rupee-sterling exchange rate at 1s 6d (1 Rupee = 1 shilling 6 pence).

The primary purpose of this fixed exchange rate was to facilitate the smooth flow of Home Charges and remittances from India to Britain, and to maintain India''s creditworthiness in international markets.

Indian nationalists criticized this rate as being set too high, which made Indian exports costlier and imports cheaper, thereby draining India''s wealth to Britain.

The overvaluation of the rupee hurt Indian exporters and benefited British manufacturers who exported goods to India.

Consider the following statements :

I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kangnika.

II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following ?

1. Emergence of urban life

2. Transition to money economy Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option (C) — Both 1 and 2

The emergence of punch-marked coins and monetary references in Pali texts (like kahapana, nikkha) are key markers of the Second Urbanization in Indian history (circa 6th century BCE onwards).

The use of coins signifies the transition from barter to a money economy, which facilitated trade and commerce in the newly emerging urban centers (Mahajanapadas).

Archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins, mostly made of silver, has been found at numerous sites associated with early historic urban settlements, corroborating the Pali literary evidence.

Both urbanization and monetization were interlinked processes. towns and cities needed a standardized medium of exchange, and coins enabled more complex economic transactions.

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara ?

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami

2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole

3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh

4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Option (B) — Huchimalligudi and Dasavatara temples have Nagara shikharas

Indian temple architecture is broadly classified into the Nagara style of the North and the Dravida style of the South.

The Nagara style is prominently characterized by a curvilinear tower known as a shikhara, which tapers inward as it rises.

The Chalukya sites of Aihole, Badami and Pattadakal are famous for experimenting with both Nagara and Dravida architectural styles in close proximity.

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included ?

(a) Deva (gods)

(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Option (B) — Yaksha (demi-gods)

Jainism recognizes four main forms of existence (gatis) in the cycle of birth and death (samsara): Deva (gods/celestial beings), Manushya (humans), Tiryancha (animals and plants), and Naraki (hellish beings).

Yaksha (demi-gods) is not one of the four gatis in Jain philosophy, although Yakshas and Yakshinis are associated with Jain tradition as attendant deities of the Tirthankaras.

The concept of four gatis is fundamental to Jain cosmology and soteriology, as liberation (moksha) means escaping from the cycle of these four forms of existence.

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents :

(a) A joyous folk dance

(b) Buddha in a meditative pose

(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Option (A) — A joyous folk dance

The Bagh Caves are a group of nine rock-cut caves situated in Bagh town of Dhar district, Madhya Pradesh, dating to the 5th-6th century AD.

The caves are famous for their mural paintings, which are often compared to the Ajanta cave paintings.

The term Hallisalasya refers to a group dance or a joyous folk dance depicted in the murals of Bagh Caves, showing a procession of dancers in lively movement.

This painting is one of the most celebrated artworks from the Bagh Caves and depicts a festive, communal dance scene.

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India :

1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595 - 596).

2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.

3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (D) — 1, 2 and 3

The place-value (decimal) system is one of India''s most significant contributions to mathematics and was gradually adopted in epigraphy.

The Mankani (or Sankheda) copper plates from Gujarat, dated to AD 595-596, are widely recognized as the earliest epigraphic evidence of the place-value system in India.

By the ninth century, the place-value notation became widespread in inscriptions across India, replacing older systems.

In Southeast Asia, Sanskrit inscriptions from as early as the seventh century show the use of the Indian place-value system, reflecting the spread of Indian mathematical knowledge.

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns :

I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.

II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.

III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements ?

1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.

2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.

3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (A) — 1 and 2 only

The Harappan (Indus Valley) civilization demonstrated advanced urban planning, craft production, and scientific knowledge in standardized weights and measures.

Spindle-whorls found in houses without spinning wheels indicate that spinning was done manually at home, making it a time-consuming, laborious domestic activity.

The discovery of standardized weights and graduated measurement scales reflects the advanced scientific and metrological knowledge of the Harappans.

Houses with private wells, courtyards, bathing platforms, and large rooms suggest private property ownership and individual household wealth, not a common property system.

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

(b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

(c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

(d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Option (C) — The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) in Gujarat, led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, was a no-tax campaign by peasants against a 22% increase in land revenue imposed by the colonial government.

The Eka Movement (1921-22) was a peasant movement in the Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur districts of Awadh (not Varanasi/Mirzapur) against oppressive rent extraction by taluqdars and landlords.

The Eka Movement was initially supported by Congress and Khilafat leaders like Madari Pasi but later moved beyond Congress control. The taluqdars were the oppressors, not the leaders.

Bardoli is located in the Surat district of Gujarat, not in Saurashtra.

10)

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period :

I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.

II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells. Which of the following information support/supports the above statements ?

1. There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.

2. Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu / kulisha (axe) and datra / sreni (sickle).

3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts. Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Option (C) — 1 and 3 only

The Rigveda contains references to agricultural practices including irrigation using wells, with mentions of ashma chakra (stone wheel/pulley) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) for drawing water.

The use of draught animals like oxen for ploughing and pulling carts predates the Rigvedic period and continued during it, supporting Statement II about draught-animal power for drawing water from wells.

Implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle) mentioned in the Rigveda relate to clearing land and harvesting. These support agriculture in general but do not specifically support the statements about irrigation from wells or the use of draught-animal power to draw water.

Information 1 directly supports both statements (well-based irrigation technology), and Information 3 supports Statement II (use of animal power), while Information 2 is about general agricultural tools, not about irrigation or draught-animal use for water.

11)

Consider the following assertion : In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion ?

1. The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda

2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote

3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3

Option (D) — 3

Geologists suggest that a mighty river called Indo-Brahma or Shiwalik traversed the entire longitudinal extent of the Himalayas during the Pleistocene epoch.

The dismemberment of this river into the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra systems is believed to have been caused by Pleistocene upheavals in the Potwar Plateau.

The presence of closely related river dolphins, specifically of the Platanista genus, in both the Indus and Ganga river systems serves as strong biological evidence for their historical connection.

12)

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography ?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha

(b) The Buddha''s First Sermon

(d) The Buddha''s Mahabhinishkramana

Option (A) — The meditation of the Buddha

In early Buddhist art (aniconic phase), the Buddha was not depicted in human form but was represented through symbols.

An empty seat or throne symbolized the Buddha''s meditation, particularly his attainment of enlightenment under the Bodhi tree.

Other symbols include the Bodhi tree (enlightenment), the Dharma chakra (First Sermon), footprints (Buddha''s presence), and the stupa (Mahaparinibbana).

13)

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1. Vitasta - Chenab

2. Asikni - Jhelum

3. Parushni - Ravi

4. Yavyavati - Beas

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(d) 4 only

Option (C) — 3 only

The ancient Vedic names of Punjab rivers and their modern equivalents are well-established in Indian history.

Vitasta is the ancient name for Jhelum (not Chenab), Asikni is the ancient name for Chenab (not Jhelum), Parushni is the ancient name for Ravi, and Yavyavati (Vipasha) is actually the Beas but the ancient name for Beas is Vipas/Vipasha, not Yavyavati.

The correct sequence is: Vitasta-Jhelum, Asikni-Chenab, Parushni-Ravi, Vipasha-Beas, Shutudri-Sutlej.

14)

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct ?

1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.

2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.

3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 3 are correct

The Amaravati Stupa, also known as Mahachaitya, is a ruined Buddhist monument located at Amaravati village in the Palnadu district of Andhra Pradesh.

It was built in phases between the third century BCE and about 250 CE, largely patronized by the Satavahana and Ikshvaku dynasties.

The Amaravati school of art is renowned for its intricate relief sculptures depicting scenes from the life of Buddha and Jataka tales using white marble.

15)

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched ?

1. Senguttuvan : Chera

2. Udiyanjeral : Chola

3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Option (B) — 2 only

The early historical period of Tamilakam was dominated by three major dynasties known as the Muvendar, which included the Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas.

The Sangam literature is the primary source of information regarding the political history of these three kingdoms.

Prominent rulers are frequently mentioned in Sangam poems, providing details about their military conquests, patronage of bards, and respective dynasties.

16)

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.

2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.

3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.

4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 4 only

Option (B) — 1, 2 and 4

After winning the Congress Presidency at Tripuri in 1939, Bose faced strong opposition from the Gandhian old guard and failed to win Gandhi''s confidence, which made his functioning as president untenable.

The Congress Left was deeply disunited. The Communists initially supported Bose but later withdrew support. The M.N. Roy group and socialists like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred maintaining Congress unity over backing Bose.

Bose resigned from the Congress presidency in April 1939 and formed the Forward Bloc in May 1939 as a faction within the Congress to consolidate the Left.

The Communists did initially support Bose during the Tripuri crisis, so statement 3 (that they did not support him) is incorrect in the context of the formation of the Forward Bloc.

17)

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

1. The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.

2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.

3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Option (A) — 2 and 3 only

After the annexation of Awadh in 1856, the British conducted a Summary Settlement that dispossessed the taluqdars of their estates, treating them as interlopers or middlemen rather than legitimate landholders.

The British policy aimed to establish direct revenue collection from the peasants by eliminating the taluqdari intermediary layer, based on the assumption that taluqdars were outsiders who had usurped peasant rights.

The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates, and crucially, they were also disarmed and their forts were destroyed. They were not allowed to retain their arms and forts, making statement 1 incorrect.

18)

Consider the following assertion: The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919. Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.

2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.

3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (D) — 1, 2 and 3

The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 retained and extended the system of separate electorates first introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909, now extending them to Sikhs and others.

Separate electorates were a deliberate colonial strategy to divide Indian society along communal lines and weaken the growing nationalist movement by encouraging community-based political identities.

The provision of separate electorates and reserved seats incentivized deprived and minority communities to organize around communal identities to secure political representation, thereby creating community-based political alliances.

19)

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana

(b) Gwalior Gharana

(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Option (D) — Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910-1992) was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist from Dharwad, Karnataka.

He was a distinguished exponent of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana, known for its emphasis on raga elaboration and complex melodic patterns.

He was a disciple of Manji Khan and Bhurji Khan of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana and was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 1992.

20)

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (''mistress of the field'') originate?

(a) Rigveda

(b) Atharvaveda

(d) Arthashastra

Option (B) — Atharvaveda

The term kshetra-patni meaning ''mistress of the field'' is found in the Atharvaveda, indicating women''s association with agricultural land in Vedic society.

The Atharvaveda contains hymns related to everyday life, agriculture, and domestic affairs, and provides insights into the social and economic roles of women in the later Vedic period.

This term has been interpreted by scholars as evidence that women had certain rights or connections to agricultural land in Vedic times.

21)

Consider the following statements with reference to India''s response to climate change:

I. India''s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.

II. India''s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.

III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.

2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.

3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (B) — 1 and 2

India''s LT-LEDS was presented at COP27 and outlines pathways to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070, emphasizing long-term, phased transition across sectors.

India''s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December 2024 reported a decrease in GHG emissions in 2020 compared to 2019, providing empirical evidence that India is making progress on emission reduction, which supports Statement I.

Climate-resilient development is inherently a long-term process requiring sustained, phased efforts. Statement III''s emphasis on ''quick and short-term'' targets contradicts the long-term approach implicit in LT-LEDS (Statement I).

Statement III contradicts Statement I rather than complementing it, so together they cannot establish a premise of long-term sustainability.

22)

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.

2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.

3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (B) — 1 and 2

The Western Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is found in northeast India and is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam is specifically dedicated to this species.

Gibbons are known as the greatest brachiators among primates. They have long arms and specialized shoulder joints that allow them to swing efficiently between trees at high speed.

Gibbons are the smallest apes and have a slender, lightweight build, very unlike gorillas which are large and heavily built. This lightweight build is precisely what enables their agile brachiation.

23)

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.

2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.

3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (D) — 3 only

Mangroves serve as natural bio-shields against cyclones, storm surges, and tsunamis by absorbing wave energy and reducing coastal erosion. They are critical for climate resilience.

Mangroves provide livelihood support to coastal communities through fisheries (serving as nursery habitats for fish and shrimp), timber, and non-timber forest products.

Mangroves are not used for paddy cultivation in saline belts, nor do their roots convert seawater to freshwater. Mangrove roots are salt-tolerant (not salt-sensitive) and have specialized mechanisms to exclude or excrete salt.

Mangroves store blue carbon (carbon in coastal and marine ecosystems) at rates significantly higher than terrestrial forests, making them vital for climate change mitigation.

24)

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India''s maritime trade and logistics policy?

1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.

2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala''s profile as a maritime heritage destination.

3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (D) — 3 only

Vizhinjam International Seaport, located near Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala, is India''s first deep-water container trans-shipment port. It has a natural depth of over 20 meters, which can accommodate the largest container vessels.

Currently, about 75% of India''s trans-shipment cargo is routed through foreign ports like Colombo, Singapore, and Dubai. Vizhinjam aims to capture a significant share of this trans-shipment traffic, thereby retaining revenue domestically.

Vizhinjam is strategically located just 10 nautical miles from the major international shipping route connecting Europe, the Persian Gulf, and East Asia, giving it a competitive advantage.

The port is not designed as an exclusively domestic cargo hub, nor is it focused primarily on passenger cruise tourism or heritage shipping.

25)

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

1. It has an antecedent drainage system.

2. It flows through three countries.

3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation. 4. It does not form distributaries.

(a) Brahmaputra

(b) Indus

(d) Teesta

Option (C) — Sutlej

The Sutlej River originates near Lake Rakshastal (close to Lake Mansarovar) on the Tibetan Plateau and has an antecedent drainage system, meaning it predates the Himalayan uplift and has cut through the rising mountains.

The Sutlej flows through three countries: China (Tibet), India (Himachal Pradesh and Punjab), and Pakistan (Punjab province), where it joins the Chenab to eventually form the Panjnad.

The Sutlej is a crucial irrigation river, feeding the Bhakra-Nangal Dam and extensive canal systems in Punjab (both Indian and Pakistani sides), including the Indira Gandhi Canal system indirectly.

Unlike the Brahmaputra or Indus, the Sutlej does not form a significant delta or distributary system. It merges into the Chenab River in Pakistan before reaching the Indus.

26)

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.

2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.

3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (C) — Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect

India comprises 28 States and 8 Union Territories with a diverse array of internal and international boundaries.

The length and distribution of these borders depend on geographical layout and historical territorial divisions.

Knowledge of India''s political geography is essential to accurately map out state borders and international frontiers.

27)

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.

2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.

3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (A) — 1 only

Amur Falcons are long distance migratory raptors that travel annually from their breeding grounds in East Asia to wintering grounds in Southern Africa.

Doyang Lake in Nagaland serves as a crucial stopover site for millions of these birds, earning the state the title of Falcon Capital of the World.

A massive community led conservation effort successfully ended the local practice of hunting these birds, transforming the villagers into dedicated protectors.

28)

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) ?

1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas

2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions

3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (D) — 3 only

The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) programme under NMSA aims to improve the quality of life of farmers in rainfed areas by promoting Integrated Farming Systems (IFS) that combine crops, livestock, fishery, forestry, and other activities.

RAD focuses on diversification rather than monoculture, and it targets rainfed areas specifically, not irrigated regions.

The key objective is to enhance productivity, minimize climatic risks, and provide livelihood diversification through sustainable farming practices in rainfed areas.

29)

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.

2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option (C) — Both 1 and 2

Eri Silk, also known as Ahimsa silk or peace silk, is produced primarily in Assam and other northeastern states of India. It is extracted without killing the silkworm, making it appealing to eco-conscious markets.

Oeko-Tex certification is an international testing and certification system for textiles, ensuring that products are free from harmful substances and meet strict environmental and safety standards.

Obtaining Oeko-Tex certification enables Indian Eri Silk exporters to access premium international markets that demand chemical-free, sustainably produced textiles, while also confirming the silk meets international quality and safety benchmarks.

30)

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean ?

1. Bahrain

2. Syria

3. Qatar

4. Egypt

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Option (B) — 1 and 3

The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and then to the Arabian Sea (part of the Indian Ocean). Countries whose ports are located within the Persian Gulf must pass through the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean.

Bahrain is an island nation in the Persian Gulf and its ships must pass through the Strait of Hormuz to reach the Indian Ocean.

Qatar is a peninsula projecting into the Persian Gulf, and its ships also must pass through the Strait of Hormuz to access the Indian Ocean.

Syria is located on the eastern Mediterranean coast, and its ships would exit through the Suez Canal or other Mediterranean routes, not through the Strait of Hormuz. Egypt is also a Mediterranean/Red Sea country and does not need to use the Strait of Hormuz.

31)

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries ?

(a) Ecuador

(b) Peru

(d) Colombia

Option (A) — Ecuador

Tungurahua Volcano is an active stratovolcano located in the Cordillera Oriental of the Andes in central Ecuador, rising to about 5,023 metres.

The name Tungurahua comes from the Quichua words meaning ''Throat of Fire''. It lies within the Sangay National Park region and is part of Ecuador''s Pacific Ring of Fire chain.

In 2025, UNESCO designated the Tungurahua Volcano area as a Global Geopark, recognising its volcanic geology, biodiversity, and cultural heritage of indigenous communities like the Kichwa and Salasaka.

UNESCO Global Geoparks are unified geographical areas where sites of international geological significance are managed with a focus on protection, education, and sustainable development.

32)

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.

2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.

3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (B) — Madhav National Park: Tiger Reserve with Sakhya Sagar

Madhav National Park is located in the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh, part of the upper Vindhyan hills.

It was notified as India''s 58th Tiger Reserve in 2025, becoming the ninth tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh.

The park contains two artificial lakes, Sakhya Sagar and Madhav Sagar, created by damming the Manier river. Sakhya Sagar was designated a Ramsar Site in 2022.

The park lies entirely within Madhya Pradesh and is not shared with any other state.

33)

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.

2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.

3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 2 only correct

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands experience a humid tropical coastal climate due to their location in the Bay of Bengal near the equator.

Temperatures remain fairly uniform throughout the year, ranging between 23°C and 31°C, with high humidity.

The islands receive rainfall from both the South-west monsoon (May to September) and the North-east monsoon (November to December).

Annual rainfall is around 3000 mm, with maximum precipitation occurring between May and December, not December to May.

34)

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India ?

1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity

2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills

3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 2 are correct

The Peninsular Block is one of the oldest and most stable landmasses of India, formed mainly of Archaean gneisses and schists.

Its relief includes residual mountains, low plateaus, broad shallow valleys, and rounded hills shaped by prolonged erosion.

The western coast of India shows evidence of submergence, while the eastern coast is largely an emergent coast.

Peninsular rivers are mostly mature, flowing through shallow valleys with low gradients, unlike Himalayan rivers.

35)

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of Government of India :

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping along with improved global port rankings.

III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?

1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.

2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.

3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Option (B) — Relationships 1 and 2 are correct

The Sagarmala Programme, launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, aims at port-led development by harnessing India''s 7,500 km coastline, 14,500 km of potentially navigable waterways, and strategic location on key international maritime trade routes.

Its pillars include port modernisation, port connectivity enhancement, port-linked industrialisation, coastal community development, and coastal shipping and inland waterways transport.

Sagarmala 2.0 envisions transforming India into a global maritime hub with focus on shipbuilding, ship repair, recycling, green shipping, and innovation, aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047.

India''s improved rankings in the Logistics Performance Index and growth in coastal shipping tonnage validate the programme''s outcomes.

36)

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

1. It is an epiphytic orchid.

2. The species is endemic to North-east India.

3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 3 are correct

Rhynchostylis retusa, commonly known as the Foxtail orchid, is an exotic blooming orchid belonging to the Vanda alliance.

It is easily identified by its long, drooping inflorescence resembling a bushy fox tail, featuring numerous pink and white flowers.

The plant is highly revered in Assamese culture, known locally as Kopou Phool, and is an essential adornment for dancers during the Bohag Bihu festival.

37)

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

1. They acted as army fortresses.

2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.

3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.

4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Option (C) — Burial mounds of Ahom royals and nobles

Moidams are the mound-burial system of the Tai-Ahom dynasty that ruled Assam for nearly 600 years (1228 to 1826 CE).

Located at Charaideo in Assam, the Moidams were inscribed as India''s 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site in July 2024, becoming the first cultural property from the Northeast to receive this status.

Each Moidam consists of a vault or chamber where the deceased royal was entombed with belongings, covered by a hemispherical earthen mound topped with a brick or stone structure.

The site reflects the Tai-Ahom belief system of ancestor worship and resembles the royal burial traditions seen in Egyptian pyramids and Chinese imperial tombs.

38)

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2026 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation".

Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct?

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean

(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Option (B) — Better production, nutrition, environment and life

The FAO Strategic Framework 2022-2031 is built on the vision of the Four Betters: Better Production, Better Nutrition, Better Environment, and Better Life, leaving no one behind.

Blue Transformation is FAO''s vision to enhance the role of aquatic food systems in feeding the growing global population, while ensuring sustainability of aquatic resources and equitable livelihoods.

At the UN Ocean Conference (UNOC) 2025/2026 in France (Nice), FAO highlighted sustainable fisheries and aquaculture as central to achieving SDG 14 (Life Below Water).

Blue Transformation rests on three pillars: sustainable aquaculture expansion, effective fisheries management, and upgraded aquatic value chains.

39)

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct ?

1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.

2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.

3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ''Jade Sea''.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 3 only are correct

Lake Turkana is an endorheic alkaline lake located in the Kenyan Rift Valley, with its northern tip extending into Ethiopia.

It is the world''s largest permanent desert lake and the largest alkaline lake on Earth.

The lake is famous for its blue-green hue caused by algae, earning it the nickname ''Jade Sea''.

Lake Turkana National Parks were designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1997 for their unique ecosystems and fossil sites linked to early human evolution.

40)

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India ?

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project

(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas

(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Option (C) — Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

REDD+ is a framework created by the UNFCCC to guide activities in the forest sector that reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation.

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project is located in the state of Meghalaya and engages local indigenous communities in forest conservation and restoration efforts.

It holds the distinction of being India''s first REDD+ project to be certified under the Plan Vivo Standard, which is a framework specifically designed for community based payments for ecosystem services.

41)

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct ?

1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.

2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.

3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (C) — 1 and 2 only

Genetic medicines are therapeutic agents that work by correcting, compensating for, or silencing faulty genes responsible for diseases. Examples include gene therapy, antisense oligonucleotides, and RNA interference therapies.

Engineered viruses (viral vectors like adeno-associated viruses) and lipid nanoparticles (used in mRNA vaccines and therapies) serve as delivery vehicles or carriers for genetic medicines.

Genetic medicines do not alter the entire DNA sequence. They target specific genes or gene segments that are responsible for a disease, making precise and targeted modifications rather than changing the whole genome.

42)

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct ?

1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.

2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.

3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (B) — 1 and 2 only

Large Language Models (LLMs) like GPT work by predicting the next token/word in a sequence. They assign probability distributions over possible next words and typically select based on highest probability (or use sampling strategies).

LLMs are trained through mathematical optimization processes (gradient descent, backpropagation) that minimize a loss function, which measures prediction errors between the model output and actual training data.

LLMs are known to produce biased outputs because they are trained on large corpora of text data from the internet that contain inherent biases related to gender, race, culture, and other factors. Bias in training data leads to biased outputs.

43)

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct ?

1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.

2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.

3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (C) — 1 and 2 only

Stealth technology is designed to make aircraft, ships, and other military vehicles less visible to radar, infrared, and other detection methods. A key feature is minimizing the radar cross-section (RCS) through shape design and Radar Absorbing Materials (RAM).

Stealth objects can potentially be detected using specific radar frequencies, particularly lower frequencies (VHF and UHF bands). Low-frequency radars have wavelengths comparable to aircraft dimensions, making stealth shaping less effective.

Metamaterials in stealth applications are designed to reduce scattering of electromagnetic radiation, not increase it. The goal is to redirect or absorb radar waves rather than scatter them, making the object less detectable.

44)

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct ?

1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.

2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.

3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

Black boxes in aircraft consist of two units: the Flight Data Recorder (FDR) which records flight parameters, and the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) which records audio from the cockpit. Together they record both voice and flight data.

Black boxes carry an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) that emits ultrasonic pulses (at 37.5 kHz), not red light pulses. These acoustic pings can be detected underwater for up to 30 days or more to help locate submerged wreckage.

The crash-survivable memory units of black boxes are encased in robust materials such as stainless steel or titanium to withstand extreme impact, fire, and deep-sea pressure.

45)

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct ?

1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).

2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.

3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

Green hydrogen is specifically produced through electrolysis of water using electricity generated from renewable energy sources such as solar, wind, or hydropower. This makes it a zero-carbon hydrogen production method.

Hydrogen produced from natural gas reforming combined with Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS) is classified as blue hydrogen, not green hydrogen. The distinction is important: green hydrogen involves no fossil fuels in its production.

India''s National Green Hydrogen Mission, approved in January 2023, targets production of 5 MMT of green hydrogen per annum by 2030 and aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

46)

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India''s space programme :

1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.

2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world''s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.

3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (C) — 1 and 2 only

IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) was established in 2020 as an autonomous body under the Department of Space to promote, handhold, and authorize private sector participation in India''s space activities.

Agnikul Cosmos successfully launched its Agnibaan SOrTeD rocket in May 2024, which used a single-piece 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine, making it the world''s first such flight.

Skyroot Aerospace developed and launched the Vikram-S rocket using solid-fuel propulsion. It has not developed liquid fuel for GSLV. GSLV uses cryogenic engines developed by ISRO.

47)

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct ?

1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.

2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.

3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

Drone swarms typically use standard communication frequencies such as UHF, VHF, Wi-Fi, or other radio frequency bands for communication, not the Terahertz band, which is still largely experimental and not used in practical drone operations.

Individual drones in a swarm communicate with each other using inter-drone communication protocols, enabling decentralized coordination and collective behavior without relying solely on a central command.

GPS Spoofing is indeed a commonly used counter-drone technique where false GPS signals are sent to mislead drones, causing them to lose navigation or land in unintended locations.

48)

Which of the following statements with regard to Genome India Project is/are correct?

1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.

2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.

3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

The GenomeIndia Project is an indigenous initiative and is not part of the international Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003. GenomeIndia is a separate project focused specifically on mapping genetic diversity within the Indian population.

The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) under the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India, and is coordinated by the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore, along with several partner institutions.

The primary aim of the GenomeIndia Project is to create a comprehensive reference genome database of the Indian population by sequencing genomes of thousands of individuals from diverse ethnic and linguistic backgrounds across India.

49)

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct ?

1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits.

2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option (C) — Both 1 and 2

The National Quantum Mission (NQM) was approved by the Union Cabinet in April 2023 with a total outlay of Rs 6,003.65 crore for the period 2023-2031.

One of the key objectives of NQM is to develop intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years, using superconducting and photonic technology platforms.

The mission envisages setting up four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in top academic and national R&D institutions focusing on Quantum Computing, Quantum Communication, Quantum Sensing & Metrology, and Quantum Materials & Devices.

50)

Which of the following statements with regard to India''s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.

2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.

3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (B) — 2 and 3 only

India''s Deep Ocean Mission was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. It was approved in June 2021 with a budget of Rs 4,077 crore for a 5-year period.

Matsya-6000 is a manned submersible designed to carry 3 crew members to a depth of 6,000 metres for deep-sea exploration, mineral resource assessment, and biodiversity studies.

Samudrayaan is the flagship project under the Deep Ocean Mission, involving the development of a manned submersible (Matsya-6000) for deep ocean exploration.

51)

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X''s actions?

(a) Esprit de corps

(b) Equity

(d) Delegation

Option (C) — Accountability

Accountability in public administration means being able for one''s actions and decisions, especially regarding public welfare and ethical conduct.

Mr. X reported quality compromise to the vigilance authority and halted the contract, demonstrating his responsibility to ensure citizen welfare despite pressure from vested interests.

Esprit de corps refers to team spirit, equity to fairness, and delegation to assigning authority. None of these fit as well as accountability.

52)

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above :

1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.

2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.

3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform -including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives -to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.

4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process ?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Option (A) — 1, 3 and 4 only

Effective conflict resolution in multi-ethnic contexts requires acknowledging cultural sensitivities before proposing technical solutions.

Multi-stakeholder dialogue platforms are essential tools for building consensus and de-escalating tensions.

Independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessments provide evidence-based foundations for transparent decision-making.

Overriding the concerns of a tribal community without consultation violates principles of inclusive governance and tribal rights.

53)

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project -a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city''s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public

2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project''s integrity

3. Propose a ''limited disclosure'' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (C) — 2 and 3 only

When dealing with unproven but credible concerns about a contractor, a balanced approach is needed that protects public interest without premature public disclosure.

Limited disclosure to an oversight committee ensures institutional checks while avoiding potential defamation from unproven allegations.

Recommending removal from the shortlist is a prudent protective measure for project integrity.

Immediate public disclosure of unproven allegations could be legally problematic and unnecessarily damage reputations.

54)

''X'' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ''law'' as provided under Article 13 Part III of the Constitution of India. ''X'' said that the meaning of the term ''law'' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances orders and even rules and regulations. ''Y'' pointed out that the term ''law'' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ''X'' was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the given below :

(a) ''X'' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.

(b) The view of ''Y'' that ''law'' included custom is not correct.

(d) The view of only ''Y'' is correct.

Option (D) — Only the view of Y is correct

Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that all laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void.

Under Article 13 clause 3, the term law is defined very broadly to include any Ordinance, order, bye law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.

Since custom and usage are explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, the refusal by X to accept this fact makes the overall view of X incorrect.

55)

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ''Constitution of India''.

2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.

3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All three statements are correct.

(b) There is no correct statement.

(d) There is only one correct statement.

Option (B) — There is no correct statement.

Article 393 specifies: ''This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India,'' making Statement 1 incorrect.

Article 395 explicitly repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935, making Statement 2 incorrect.

Article 394 explicitly mentions ''the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950'' as the date of commencement for remaining provisions, making Statement 3 incorrect.

56)

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.

2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains -built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.

3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

Option (B) — 2 only

The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2016, not 2018. It received Presidential assent on December 27, 2016, and came into effect on April 19, 2017.

Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) was launched in 2015 and focuses on three pillars: built environment accessibility, transportation system accessibility, and ICT (Information and Communication Technology) ecosystem accessibility.

The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) was set up under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. It provides financial assistance and skill development to Persons with Disabilities.

57)

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.

3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.

(d) All three statements are correct.

Option (A) — There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

The administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram is covered under the Sixth Schedule (not the Fifth Schedule) of the Constitution. The Fifth Schedule deals with administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than the four northeastern states.

Under the Income Tax Act, members of Scheduled Tribes residing in specified areas (such as those in the Sixth Schedule areas, or states like Nagaland, Manipur, etc.) are entitled to exemption from income tax on certain incomes under Section 10(26).

Article 243D of the Constitution provides for reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Panchayats, and further provides that not less than one-third of the total seats reserved for SCs/STs shall be reserved for women belonging to those categories.

58)

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral in the House.

2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written .

3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) All the three statements are correct.

(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Option (C) — Only one correct statement

The Question Hour is the first hour of a sitting session of the Parliament of India devoted to questions raised by Members of Parliament.

Parliamentary questions are primarily categorized into Starred, Unstarred, and Short Notice questions.

These questions are vital tools for Members to hold the executive accountable and seek information on matters of public importance.

59)

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India :

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.

3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.

4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) There are four correct statements.

(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.

(d) There is no correct statement.

Option (D) — There is no correct statement.

The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 members: 20 elected by Lok Sabha and 10 elected by Rajya Sabha (not the reverse as stated in Statement 2).

The Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

No Minister can be a member of this Committee. There is no exception for the Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment.

The members of the Committee hold office for a term of one year, not two years.

60)

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India : 1. It aims to enhance India''s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.

2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India''s strategic autonomy.

3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 only

Option (B) — 1 and 2 only

Mission Sudarshan Chakra is an initiative by the Indian Air Force (IAF) aimed at enhancing India''s integrated air defence, ballistic missile defence, and aerial offensive capabilities.

The mission is designed to bolster rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India''s strategic autonomy in the face of evolving security threats.

The mission is a military/defence initiative focused on air defence and offensive capabilities, not a civilian public security shield covering public places. Statement 3 incorrectly characterizes it as a nationwide public places security shield by 2035.

61)

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries :

1. ''Maitri Setu'', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.

2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.

3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Option (D) — 3 only

Maitri Setu was built over the Feni river and connects Sabroom in Tripura (India) with Ramgarh in Bangladesh, not the other way around as stated in Statement 1.

Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Nepal (Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand with Baitadi district of Nepal), not Myanmar.

Mechi bridge connects Panitanki Bypass in India (West Bengal) with Kakarvitta in Nepal, which is correctly stated in Statement 3.

62)

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct ?

1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.

2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.

3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Option (C) — 1 only

Under BNSS 2023 (Section 173), a Zero FIR can be filed at any police station regardless of the territorial jurisdiction where the cognizable offence was committed. The FIR is then transferred to the jurisdictional police station.

Zero FIR applies specifically to cognizable offences. Statement 1 mentions non-cognizable offences as well, but under BNSS Section 173, Zero FIR provisions have been formalized primarily for cognizable offences. However, the BNSS text does allow filing at any station.

The requirement to furnish information electronically is not obligatory under Zero FIR provisions. It is a facility that may be available but is not mandatory for the informant.

The preliminary enquiry provision under BNSS relates to offences punishable with 3 to 7 years, but the officer must transfer the Zero FIR to the competent jurisdiction. The OIC of the station where Zero FIR is lodged does not initiate preliminary enquiry with permission of competent authority in the manner described.

63)

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) None

Option (A) — 1

Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) coordinates between various law enforcement agencies on economic intelligence matters, but it falls under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue), not the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) investigates complex corporate frauds, but it comes under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.

CBI''s mandate includes preserving values in public life and ensuring the health of the national economy, and it operates under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions through the Department of Personnel and Training. This row is correctly matched.

64)

Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India ?

1. Employment Policy Convention

2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention

3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families

4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War

5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Option (D) — 3, 4 and 5

India has ratified the Employment Policy Convention (ILO C122) in 1998.

India has ratified the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (ILO C105) in 2000.

India has NOT ratified the International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families (1990). Most destination countries for migrants have not ratified this convention.

India has NOT ratified the Geneva Convention IV (Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War). India ratified the first three Geneva Conventions but not the Fourth. India has also NOT ratified the Convention on Reduction of Statelessness (1961).

65)

Consider the following statements, with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

1. The Summit''s intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras : People, Planning, and Progress.

2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.

3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 3 only

Option (D) — 3 only

The AI Impact Summit 2025 (often referenced as leading to 2026 outcomes) was held in New Delhi. The Summit''s framework was based on three Sutras: People, Planet, and Prosperity (not People, Planning, and Progress).

The Preamble does reference Democratising AI Resources, but the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI is described as a non-binding/voluntary framework, not a binding framework as stated in Statement 2.

The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars) which included themes such as Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI, making Statement 3 correct.

66)

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ?

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project

2. IMT Trilateral Highway

3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 only

Option (A) — (a) 1 and 2

India''s Act East Policy emphasizes physical connectivity with ASEAN through road, rail, sea, and air links.

Myanmar is the land bridge between India and ASEAN, hence most connectivity projects with ASEAN pass through Myanmar.

Bangladesh is not a member of ASEAN, so India-Bangladesh connectivity projects fall outside India-ASEAN cooperation.

ASEAN consists of 10 Southeast Asian nations including Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Indonesia, etc.

67)

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Project Supported by India)	List II (Country)
A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project	1. Maldives
B. Restoration of Stor Palace	2. Afghanistan
C. District Hospital at Dickoya	3. Bhutan
D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies	4. Sri Lanka

(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

(d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Option (B) — A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

India undertakes several development assistance projects in its neighbourhood as part of its Neighbourhood First Policy.

The Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project is a 720 MW run-of-river power plant in Trongsa Dzongkhag of Bhutan, built with Indian assistance and inaugurated in 2019.

India also supports cultural restoration, health infrastructure, and capacity building projects in Afghanistan, Sri Lanka, and Maldives respectively.

68)

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets

2. T-90 MK-III Tanks

3. Akula Class Submarine

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 2 only

Option (A) — Only Su-30 MKI and T-90 are manufactured domestically.

India has actively focused on domestic defense manufacturing through strategic technology transfer agreements with partner nations, particularly Russia.

Public sector undertakings such as Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and various Ordnance Factories play a critical role in building advanced military hardware locally.

While many fighter jets and battle tanks are produced natively, certain strategic assets like nuclear powered attack submarines involve highly classified technology and have been leased rather than fully manufactured domestically.

69)

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation :

1. The ''Colombo Process'' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.

2. The ''Abu Dhabi Dialogue'' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.

3. The ''Global Forum for Migration and Development'', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

Option (C) — Statements 2 and 3 only are correct

The Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process (RCP) established in 2003, comprising 12 Asian labour-sending states to discuss management of overseas employment and contractual labour.

The Abu Dhabi Dialogue was launched in 2008 as a forum bringing together Asian countries of labour origin and destination (Colombo Process states plus GCC countries) for dialogue on temporary contractual labour mobility.

The Global Forum on Migration and Development (GFMD) was proposed by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan in 2006 and is an informal, voluntary, state-led process that produces non-binding outcomes.

All three platforms are consultative in nature and do not produce legally binding decisions on member states.

70)

Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

1. World Food Programme

2. United Nations Children's Fund

3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

4. International Labour Organisation

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(d) 4

Option (A) — Only one organisation has won it twice.

The Nobel Peace Prize has been awarded to the United Nations and its various specialized agencies or programs on several occasions.

While many UN agencies have been recognized for their humanitarian work globally, only a select few have received the award more than once.

Among the given , only the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees has been honored with the Nobel Peace Prize twice.

71)

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)	List II (Period of Operation)
A. UNMIL	1. 2007 - 2010
B. MINURCAT	2. 2002 - 2005
C. MINUSTAH	3. 2003 - 2018
D. UNMISET	4. 2004 - 2017

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 3 1 4 2

(d) 2 4 1 3

Option (B) — 3 1 4 2

UNMIL (United Nations Mission in Liberia) operated from 2003 to 2018.

MINURCAT (United Nations Mission in the Central African Republic and Chad) operated from 2007 to 2010.

MINUSTAH (United Nations Stabilization Mission in Haiti) operated from 2004 to 2017.

UNMISET (United Nations Mission of Support in East Timor) operated from 2002 to 2005.

72)

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)	List II (Location)
A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory	1. NOIDA
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre	2. Bengaluru
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate	3. Colombo
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility	4. Thimphu

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 3 1 2 4

(d) 4 1 2 3

Option (C) — Matches are A4, B2, C1, and D3.

BIMSTEC stands for the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation.

It operates several specialized centers to promote technical cooperation and research among its seven member nations.

These centers are strategically located across member countries to harness specific regional expertise without centralizing all resources in one country.

73)

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (Indian Army Corps) : (Headquarters)

(a) 3 Corps - Dimapur

(b) 4 Corps - Tezpur

(d) 33 Corps - Srinagar

Option (D) — 33 Corps - Srinagar

The Indian Army''s 33 Corps (also known as the Trishul Corps) is headquartered in Sukna, near Siliguri in West Bengal, not in Srinagar.

3 Corps is headquartered in Dimapur, Nagaland and is responsible for operations in the northeast.

4 Corps is headquartered in Tezpur, Assam.

14 Corps (also known as the Fire and Fury Corps) is headquartered in Leh and is responsible for the Ladakh sector. The corps based in Srinagar is 15 Corps (Chinar Corps).

74)

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.

2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.

3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3

Option (B) — 2 only

Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan or RGSA is a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.

It aims to strengthen and build the capacity of Panchayati Raj Institutions for effective rural governance.

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the continuation of the revamped RGSA to align with the Fifteenth Finance Commission period.

75)

Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

1. Belarus

2. Poland

3. Germany

4. Switzerland

Select the using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Option (C) — 2 and 3

The European Union currently has 27 member states following Brexit in 2020.

Poland joined the EU in 2004 as part of the major eastern enlargement. Germany is a founding member of the EU (originally the EEC in 1957).

Belarus is not a member of the EU. It is closely aligned with Russia and has an authoritarian government.

Switzerland is not a member of the EU. It has historically maintained neutrality and has bilateral agreements with the EU but has never joined.

76)

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (INTERPOL Notice)	List II (Description)
A. Silver Notice	1. To seek information on unidentified bodies
B. Blue Notice	2. To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
C. Black Notice	3. To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
D. Green Notice	4. To identify and trace criminal assets

(a) 3 1 2 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 1 2 3

Option (C) — 4 2 1 3

INTERPOL issues various colour-coded notices to communicate information among member countries. Each notice serves a specific purpose.

Silver Notice is used to identify and trace criminal assets. Blue Notice is used to collect additional information about a person''s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation.

Black Notice is used to seek information on unidentified bodies. Green Notice is used to provide warnings about a person''s criminal activities where the person is considered a possible threat to public safety.

77)

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Natural Research and Application of Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.

2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.

3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Option (B) — 1 and 3 only

NIRANTAR is an integrated platform conceptualized by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to synergize the efforts of its various autonomous institutions and regional offices.

The platform aims to transform, adapt and build climate resilience through collaborative research, biodiversity conservation and the sustainable application of natural resources.

It categorizes functional responsibilities into specific verticals assigned to different lead institutions to avoid duplication of work and enhance functional efficiency.

78)

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg

2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation

3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific

4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(d) 1 only

Option (B) — Statements 1 and 4 are not correct

The Chancellor of Germany visited India to hold bilateral discussions aimed at expanding economic ties, defense cooperation, and green technology partnerships.

The visit resulted in several key outcomes, including agreements on regional security, sports development, and high level dialogues regarding the Indo-Pacific region.

However, certain claimed outcomes such as the opening of new consular offices in specific Indian cities and particular educational memorandums were not part of the official agreements.

79)

Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.

2. It is India''s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option (C) — Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

DHRUV64 is an indigenous microprocessor designed by the SHAKTI processor team at the Indian Institute of Technology Madras.

It was developed under the Digital India RISC-V Programme, an initiative designed to achieve self reliance in semiconductor and microprocessor design.

The chip has applications in embedded systems, Internet of Things devices, and secure communications, marking a major milestone for the semiconductor mission of India.

80)

The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system.

Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

1. The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.

2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.

3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Option (C) — 1 and 2 only

The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) introduced IS 19445 : 2025 as a national standard for testing and assessing bomb disposal systems.

This standard aims to improve interoperability of equipment across various agencies involved in bomb disposal and counter-IED operations in India.

The standard was developed with contributions from Indian defence and research organizations. The involvement of the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute of Russia is not established in this context.

81)

''X'', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American University when this prize was announced. Identify ''X'' :

(a) Michel H. Devoret

(b) Richard Robson

(d) Joel Mokyr

Option (C) — John Clarke

The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to John Clarke (among others) for contributions related to quantum sensing and superconducting devices.

John Clarke was born in the United Kingdom and served as a professor at the University of California, Berkeley, an American university.

Michel H. Devoret, while also associated with quantum physics, was born in France. Joel Mokyr is an economic historian and Richard Robson is a chemist, neither of whom received the 2025 Nobel Prize.

82)

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.

2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.

3. There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Option (A) — 1 and 2 only

The Grand Slam tournaments consist of the Australian Open, Roland Garros, Wimbledon, and the US Open.

These events are the most prestigious competitions in professional tennis, offering the highest ranking points and prize money.

The rules governing these tournaments, including player eligibility and wild card entries, are outlined in the official Grand Slam Rulebook published annually.

83)

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched ?

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. In partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics - Gujarat

(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. - Assam

(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. - Odisha

Option (C) — HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. - Madhya Pradesh

Under India''s semiconductor mission, several plants were approved at various locations across India.

CG Power''s semiconductor OSAT plant in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics is located in Sanand, Gujarat.

Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. (OSAT facility) is located in Jagiroad, Assam.

The HCL-Foxconn joint venture (Foxconn was originally partnered with Vedanta, later HCL stepped in) was proposed but not for Madhya Pradesh. It was proposed for Gujarat. SicSem Pvt. Ltd. is planned in Odisha for silicon carbide semiconductors.

84)

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System,’ is/are correct?

1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.

2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option (A) — Only Statement 1 is correct

The Bharat Forecast System is an indigenous high resolution weather model designed to enhance localized weather predictions in India.

It focuses on delivering granular meteorological data to support grassroots agriculture, disaster management, and local governance.

The system was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), an institute operating under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

85)

Consider the following statements with regard to the film ''Boong'' :

1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children''s and Family Film category.

2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.

3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children''s and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Option (A) — 1, 2 and 3

''Boong'' is an Indian film that won the BAFTA Award in the Children''s and Family Film category in 2025, making it a historic achievement for Indian cinema.

The film was directed by Lakshmipriya Devi, a filmmaker from Manipur, and it tells a story rooted in the Northeast Indian experience.

This was indeed the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children''s and Family Film category, marking a significant milestone.

86)

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.

2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network syncing within seconds.

3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.

4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Option (C) — Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Blockchain is a decentralized and distributed ledger technology that securely records transactions across many computers.

Each block contains a cryptographic hash of the previous block, a timestamp, and transaction data, ensuring high security.

The technology eliminates the need for a central authority, offering transparency, immutability, and traceability for various applications.

87)

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn''t keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called :

(a) Dropshipping Model

(b) Affiliate Revenue Model

(d) Agency Revenue Model

Option (A) — Dropshipping Model

Dropshipping is an e-commerce fulfillment method where the seller does not maintain any inventory of the products it sells.

When a customer places an order, the seller forwards the order and shipment details to a third-party supplier (manufacturer or wholesaler), who ships the product directly to the customer.

The seller retains control over pricing and customer interaction, earning the margin between the supplier''s price and the retail price, while avoiding warehousing and logistics costs.

Popular dropshipping platforms include Shopify, AliExpress, and Oberlo, making it a low-capital entry point for online retail entrepreneurs.

88)

Which one of the following correctly represents the three sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ?
(a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage

(b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy

(d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Option (C) — Access, Usage, and Quality

The Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) was first published by the RBI in August 2021 to capture the extent of financial inclusion across the country.

The index is constructed without any base year and reflects the cumulative efforts of stakeholders over the years towards financial inclusion.

It is a composite index with values ranging between 0 and 100, where 0 represents complete financial exclusion and 100 indicates full financial inclusion.

The FI-Index comprises three broad parameters with weights: Access (35%), Usage (45%), and Quality (20%), each consisting of various dimensions computed based on multiple indicators.

89)

Which one of the following reflects the key objective of India''s Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) initiative?
(a) To allow government control over digital commerce transactions

(b) To replace private e-commerce players

(d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Option (C) — Enable interoperability, democratize e-commerce networks

ONDC is an initiative launched by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce in 2021.

It is incorporated as a non-profit Section 8 company, aimed at promoting open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital networks.

ONDC is based on open-source methodology, using open specifications and open network protocols, independent of any specific platform.

The initiative seeks to democratize digital commerce by moving it from a platform-centric model to an open-network model, similar to how UPI transformed payments.

90)

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?
(a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.

(b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.

(c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.

(d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Option (D) — Digital Rupee is a liability of the RBI.

Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a payment system that facilitates interbank peer to peer and person to merchant transactions.

Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or Digital Rupee is a legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form.

While UPI acts as an interface to transfer money already sitting in a bank account, the Digital Rupee is currency itself and represents a direct claim on the Reserve Bank of India.

91)

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.

2. Tokenization of real world assets offers 24 x 7 access, promoting financial inclusion.

3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

Select the answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Option (A) — 1, 2 and 3

Real-World Asset (RWA) tokenization refers to converting ownership rights of physical or traditional financial assets (like real estate, commodities, bonds) into digital tokens on a blockchain.

Blockchain-based tokenization enables 24x7 trading and access, unlike traditional markets with fixed hours, thereby promoting financial inclusion by lowering barriers to entry.

Tokenization allows fractional ownership, which means individuals in India who could not previously access high-value investment opportunities (like commercial real estate or fine art) can now invest small amounts, opening up high-growth investment avenues.

92)

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called :

(a) Green Bond

(b) Social Bond

(d) Sovereign Bond

Option (C) — Sustainability Bond

According to the International Capital Market Association (ICMA), a Sustainability Bond is a bond where proceeds are exclusively used to finance or refinance a combination of both green (environmental) and social projects.

Green Bonds finance only environmental/climate-related projects, while Social Bonds finance only social projects (e.g., affordable housing, healthcare).

Sovereign Bonds are government-issued debt instruments and are not defined by the use of proceeds for environmental or social purposes.

93)

Which of the following statements about M1xchange''s role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.

2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.

3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 only

(d) 1 only

Option (B) — 2 only

M1xchange (operated by Mynd Solutions) is India''s first TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platform, approved by the Reserve Bank of India.

TReDS platforms facilitate the financing of trade receivables of MSMEs through discounting of invoices and bills of exchange. They do not provide direct loans or function as credit rating agencies.

M1xchange enables MSMEs to get their receivables financed without the need for collateral, as the financing is based on the creditworthiness of the buyer (large corporates or government entities).

94)

Which one of the following best describes the ''Crowding Out Effect'' in the context of fiscal policy?

(a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending

(b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

(d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Option (B) — A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

The Crowding Out Effect occurs when increased government spending or borrowing raises interest rates in the economy, thereby reducing private sector investment.

When the government borrows heavily from the financial market to fund its fiscal deficit, it competes with private borrowers for available funds, driving up interest rates.

Higher interest rates make borrowing costlier for private firms, leading to reduced private investment. This partially or fully offsets the expansionary effect of government spending.

95)

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilize Rare Earth Elements (REEs).

2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.

3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.

4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Option (A) — Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

Rare Earth Elements and critical minerals are essential for advanced technologies, defense systems, and the transition to renewable energy.

Global supply chains for these minerals are highly concentrated, prompting nations to secure their own supplies to prevent economic and security vulnerabilities.

India has classified several minerals as critical and strategic, initiating specific missions and policies to boost domestic exploration and global acquisition.

96)

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

1. ''Aviation Hull Insurance'' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.

2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option (C) — Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Aviation insurance provides comprehensive coverage against risks associated with aircraft operation, including physical damage and various liabilities.

The Montreal Convention 1999 is a multilateral treaty that unifies the rules for international carriage by air, focusing heavily on passenger protection and carrier liability.

Under the convention, airlines face strict liability up to a specific limit of Special Drawing Rights, ensuring families receive initial compensation promptly without lengthy legal battles over negligence.

97)

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.

2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Option (C) — Both 1 and 2

Crowdfunding involves raising small amounts of capital from a large number of individuals, typically via internet-based platforms or social networking sites, to finance a specific project, business venture, or cause.

SMEs benefit from crowdfunding as it allows them to access capital without the rigorous regulatory and procedural requirements of traditional financing methods such as IPOs or bank loans, often at a lower effective cost of capital.

SEBI has issued consultation papers on crowdfunding in India, recognizing it as a mechanism for startups and SMEs to raise funds.

98)

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Committee	Objective	Organization under which it was formed
1.	R.N. Malhotra Committee	Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India	Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
2.	L.C. Gupta Committee	Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India	Securities and Exchange Board of India
3.	Urjit R. Patel Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector	Reserve Bank of India
4.	Y.H. Malegam Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India	Reserve Bank of India

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Option (D) — 2 and 4

The R.N. Malhotra Committee (1994) recommended reforms in the insurance sector, but the organization that set it up was the Government of India (not IRDAI, which was established later in 1999 as a result of the committee''s recommendations).

The L.C. Gupta Committee was set up by SEBI in 1996 to develop a regulatory framework for derivatives trading in India. This match is correct.

The Urjit R. Patel Committee (2014) was set up by RBI to revise and strengthen the monetary policy framework, particularly regarding inflation targeting. It was not about reforming bank lending to the housing sector.

The Y.H. Malegam Committee (2011) was constituted by RBI to review issues and concerns in the microfinance sector, especially after the Andhra Pradesh microfinance crisis. This match is correct.

99)

Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.

2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.

3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.

4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Option (A) — 1 and 4

NBFCs are financial institutions that provide banking-like services but do not hold a full banking license. They are regulated by the RBI under the RBI Act, 1934.

NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits (savings/current accounts). Some categories of NBFCs can accept time/term deposits, but not demand deposits.

Not all NBFCs need to be registered with RBI. Certain types such as housing finance companies (regulated by NHB), insurance companies, and some others are exempt from RBI registration.

NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves. Also, DICGC deposit insurance is not available for deposits placed with NBFCs.

100)

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.

2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.

3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 only

Option (A) — 1 and 2 only

The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) uses the Alkire-Foster methodology, developed by Sabina Alkire and James Foster at the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).

NITI Aayog''s National MPI uses 12 indicators across three dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living, aligned with the global MPI but with India-specific modifications.

The Global MPI published by UNDP and OPHI uses 10 indicators across the same three dimensions.

Bank Account is an indicator in NITI Aayog''s MPI but not in the UNDP''s Global MPI. Maternal Health is an indicator in NITI Aayog''s MPI (as Maternal Health/ANC), while the UNDP Global MPI uses Nutrition (BMI) instead. Thus, they are not common to both.

Posted on 24-05-2026 • By Admin

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