UPSC Prelims CSAT 2023 Question Paper with Solution
Directions for the following 5 (five) item:
Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and biomethanation offers a major solution for processing this.
1. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies.
2. Resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by private sector enterprises.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is an incorrect assumption. We can apply negation test to see that the negated statement does not challenge the premise of the passage at all. So, this is an incorrect assumption. Another way of solving - The assumption is the missing link between the premise and conclusion. Think of it like the linchpin holding the whole thing together. Now, the passage is not about comparison of Private and Government sector, so we can rule out both these statements as valid assumptions.
Hence, Statement 2 is an incorrect assumption. We can also apply negation test to verify this.
2. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) Generation of energy from municipal solid waste is inexpensive.
(b) Biomethanation is the most ideal way of generating energy from municipal solid waste.
(c) Segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to- energy plants.
(d) The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is not adequate to provide energy from waste efficiently/effectively.
Answer: (c)
Crux is the most important or difficult part of a problem i.e. main point of the passage that is explicitly stated by the author. Option (a) is incorrect as it beyond the scope of the passage, expenses are not discussed.
Option (b) is incorrect: The usage of "most ideal" is a red flag and so we check whether author puts it so explicitly and also if this is the main point. As the passage mentions "major" solution and not "most ideal", we can rule this out.
Option (c) is correct: The passage begins with premise that “In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare.” Further, the conclusion which advocates biomethanation necessitates segregation. Hence we see that this given statement ties the passage together and captures the main idea.
Option (d) is incorrect as again, this statement is beyond the scope of the passage.
Passage – 2
There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.
3. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers.
2. Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Statement 1 is an incorrect assumption: The premise of the passage is that organic farming is new & unregulated. Conclusion is that due to this it is not necessary that organic is definitely better in all cases. Therefore, by both Negation & general test as seen in question 1, we can see that it is not a valid assumption.
Statement 2 is correct as we know that assumptions are most often general statements, not specific statements. Further, valid assumptions strengthen or support the conclusion, which we can see by author's concern in the passage "...farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well.."
4. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
(a) In India, organic farming should not be promoted as a substitute for conventional farming.
(b) There are no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers.
(c) In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable.
(d) The aim of organic farming should not be to generate huge profits as there is still no global market for its products.
Answer: (c)
Option (a) is incorrect as conventional farming is not being promoted by the author or being compared to organic farming. So, it can be ruled out as most logical & rational message.
Option (b) is incorrect as it is an extreme statement. Passage mentions only a few issues with organic alternatives like datura spray which cannot be extrapolated to say that no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers.
Option (c) is correct: The conclusion of the passage mentions, “The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well.” The passage explains this through example as well. Therefore, we can infer that In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable. (conclusion is more specific statement, while an inference is a more generic statement drawn from the given statement/s.)
Option (d) is incorrect as this is beyond the scope of the passage.
Passage – 3
Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional corps/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.
5. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve zero-hunger goal, monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable even if they do not address malnutrition.
2. Dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem.
3. Government policies regarding food planning need to incorporate nutritional security.
4. For the present monoculture agriculture practices, farmers receive subsidies in various ways and government offers remunerative prices for grains and therefore they do not tend to consider crop diversity.
Which of the above assumptions are valid ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
The premise of the passage is "malnutrition due to changed consumption pattern" while conclusion "monoculture has led to changed consumption pattern and malnutrition". Now, any statement that links these two and strengthens the conclusion can be taken as a vallid assumption. Also, you can test using "Negation Test".
Statement 1 is an incorrect assumption: The passage does not make any reference to Sustainable Development Goals or zero-hunger goal. It only mentions how the change in consumption patterns and focus on stable crops have affected nutrition security. Therefore, this option is beyond the scope of this passage.
Statement 2 is a correct assumption: this statement effectively links the premise and conclusion.
Statement 3 is a correct assumption: The passage mentions, “disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets”, “food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition”.
Statement 4 is an incorrect assumption: It fails the negation test and also beyond the scope of the passage.
6. A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following statements :
1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly must contain one full group of at least one colour is 175.
2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain at least one ball of each colour is 167.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
To find out the minimum possible number of balls that should be drawn from the box such that the balls drawn must contain one full group of at least one colour, find the maximum number of balls that we can draw without selecting a full group of any colour.
ie we draw one less from each colour, 13 black balls + 19 blue balls + 25 green balls + 27 yellow balls + 37 red balls + 53 white balls = 174 balls in total.
Now, if we pick any one more ball (of any colour) that group will be complete. So, the value of n = 174 + 1 = 175.
To find out the minimum possible number of balls that should be drawn from the box such that the balls drawn must contain at least one ball of each colour, we must maximise number of balls without any balls of a particular colour.
As the number of black balls is the least, we can maximise possible number of balls without selecting a black ball. So, we have 20 blue balls + 26 green balls + 28 yellow balls + 38 red balls + 54 white balls = 166 balls in total.
Since now only black balls are left, adding any black ball fulfills our need = 166 + 1 = 167
7. If 'ZERO' is written as 'CHUR', then how is 'PLAYER' written ?
(a) SOCAGT
(b) SODBGT
(c) SODBHT
(d) SODBHU
Answer: (d)
ZERO is written as CHUR.
Z + 3 = C
E + 3 = H
R + 3 = U
O + 3 = R
Therefore, for PLAYER -
P + 3 = S
L + 3 = O
A + 3 = D
Y + 3 = B
E + 3 = H
R + 3 = U
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Easier way to solve - in ZERO, R = U. In PLAYER, Last letter is also R, therefore last letter of answer = U, hence only option (d) can be correct.
8. Consider the following statements :
1. A is older than B.
2. C and D are of the same age.
3. E is the youngest.
4. F is younger than D.
5. F is older than A.
How many statements given above are required to determine the oldest person/persons ?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Answer: (d)
We need to find relationship between all 6 persons with respect to each other. Statement 1 and 2 , give us relationship between A & B and C & D respectively. Statement 4 and 5 are needed to establish relationship between these two groups and F. Including statement 3, we have complete information. Hence, all statements are needed and option (d) is correct.
9. Consider the following including the Question and the Statements:
There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family.
Question : What is the relation of E to B ?
Statement-1 : A and B are a married couple.
Statement-2 : D is the father of C.
Statement-3 : E is D's son.
Statement-4 : A and C are sisters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Questions and Statements ?
(a) Statement-1, Statement-2 and Statement-3 are sufficient to answer the Question.
(b) Statement-1, Statement-3 and Statement-4 are sufficient to answer the Question.
(c) All four statement together are sufficient to answer the Question.
(d) All four statements are not sufficient to answer the Question.
Answer: (c)
Statements 1, 2 and 3 alone are not sufficient, as we cannot find a link between B and E in these statements.
Statements 1, 3 and 4 alone are not sufficient, as we cannot find a link between B and E in these statements.
Now we are left with 2 choices, we try to find a solution, if we can, (c) is correct.
By statement 2 and 4, we know D is male and father of two females A & C.
By statement 3, we know D also has a son E
By statement 1, we know relationship of B with all members of this known family ie E is the brother-in-law of B. Hence, option (c) is correct.
10. Choose the group which is different from the others :
(a) 17, 37, 47, 97
(b) 31, 41, 53, 67
(c) 71, 73, 79, 83
(d) 83, 89, 91, 97
Answer: (d)
All numbers except 91 in above options are prime number. So, this group is different from the others.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Directions for the following 3 (three) item :
Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
To tackle the problem of pollution in cities, policy makers think that drastic actions like temporary use of odd-even number scheme for vehicles, closing schools, factories, construction activities, and banning the use of certain type of vehicles are a way forward. Even then the air is not clean. Vehicles more than 15 years old comprise one percent of the total; and taking them off the road will not make any difference. Banning certain fuels and car types arbitrarily is not proper. Diesel engines produce more PM 2.5 and less CO2 than petrol or CNG engines. On the other hand, both diesel and CNG engines produce more NOx than petrol engines. No one has measured the amount of NOx that CNG engines are emitting. Arbitrary bans on vehicles that have passed mandated fitness tests and periodic pollution tests are unfair. What is needed is the scientific and reliable information about the source of pollutants on a continuing basis and the technologies that will work to reduce pollution from them.
11. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational implication conveyed by the passage ?
(a) Arbitrary curbs on vehicles to reduce pollution are difficult to implement.
(b) Knee-jerk reactions cannot but an evidence-based approach will be more effective.
(c) A heavy penalty should be enforced on those driving without periodic pollution tests.
(d) In the absence of laws to deal with the problem of pollution, the administration tends to make arbitrary decisions.
Answer: (b)
Imply means to “to indicate or suggest something without actually stating it,”. Imply and infer are opposites, like a throw and a catch. To imply is to hint at something, but to infer is to make an educated guess. The speaker does the implying, and the listener does the inferring.
Option (a) is incorrect as author does not hint at implementation difficulty.
Option (b) is correct: Author mentions "arbitrariness" and gives several examples hinting at the "knee-jerk" reactions and the last line of passage (which is also conclusion) makes this implication amply clear from the author.
Option (c) is incorrect as the author leaves no hint to suggest heavy fines etc.
Option (d) is incorrect as the author is not hinting at absence of laws.
Passage – 2
Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance enhance access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth and employment. Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met.
12. Which of the following statements best reflects the logical inference from the passage given above ?
(a) It is an important agenda of the countries around the world to ensure access to good external financing.
(b) Good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms.
(c) International capital markets ensure that the firms maintain good corporate governance.
(d) Good corporate governance paves the way for robust supply chains.
Answer: (c)
Option (a) is incorrect as this is too far fetched. Passage merely hints at this.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage mentions “Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting” ie credibility. Therefore, this line is mere restatement of the passage and An inference is not a restatement of any of the information/statements. So, this is not a suitable choice.
Option (c) is correct: This line can be inferred from the passage's line "why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets".
Option (d) is incorrect: There is no direct mention of supply chains in the passage ie outside the scope of the passage.
Passage – 3
Elephants are landscape architects, creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain plant species and allowing space for the regeneration of others, which in turn provide sustenance to others, which in turn provide sustenance to other herbivorous animals. Elephants eat plants, fruits and seeds, propagating the seeds when they defecate in other places as they travel. Elephant dung provides nourishment to plants and animals and acts as a breeding ground for insects. In times of drought, they access water by digging holes which benefits other wildlife.
13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?
(a) The home range of elephants needs to be a vast area of rich biodiversity.
(b) Elephants are the keystone species and they benefit the biodiversity.
(c) Rich biodiversity cannot be maintained in the forests without the presence of elephants.
(d) Elephants are capable of regenerating forests with species as per their requirement.
Answer: (b)
Option (a) is incorrect as this statement is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (b) is correct as this line can be inferred from the passage and represents the crux of the passage as well.
Option (c) is incorrect as the statement is framed like a definitive statement and we cannot be sure whether rich biodiversity is not possible at all without elephants. It can be ruled out as extreme statement.
Option (d) is incorrect because of the mention of "as per their requirement" which cannot be deduced from the passage.
14. If 7 ⨁ + 9 ⨁ 10 = 8, 9 ⨁ 11 ⨁ 30 = 5, 11 ⨁ 17 ⨁ 21 = 13, what is the value of 23 ⨁ 4 ⨁ 15 ?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 13
(d) 15
Answer: (a)
7 + 9 + 10 = 26 | Sum of digits 2 + 6 = 8
9 + 11 + 30 = 50 | Sum of digits 5 + 0 = 5
11 + 17 + 21 = 49 | Sum of digits 4 + 9 = 13
23 + 4 + 15 = 42 | Sum of digits 4 + 2 = 6
Hence (a) is correct.
15. Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) Infinitely many
Answer: (c)
If 7x + 96 is divisible by x, It means that 96/x is a whole number
So, x is a factor of 96 ie 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 16, 24, 32, 48, and 96 = 12 possible values. Hence (c) is correct.
16. If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q) (r + s) ?
(a) 230
(b) 225
(c) 224
(d) 221
Answer: (b)
To maximize the value of (p + q) (r + s), we pick 4 biggest digits - 6, 7, 8, and 9.
Now either try all combinations or directly pick combination where two numbers are most similar/closest. So, the required answer = (6 + 9) (7 + 8) = 15 × 15 = 225. Hence, answer is (b).
17. A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13?
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 7
(d) 1
Answer: (a)
In remainder questions, we can check the pattern of remainders to arrive at required answer.
Remainder 1 (9/13) = 9
Remainder 2 (99/13) = 8
Remainder 3 (999/13) = 11
Remainder 4 (9999/13) = 2
Remainder 5 (99999/13) = 3
Remainder 6 (999999/13) = 0
Remainder 7 (9999999/13) = 9
Therefore, after this, the pattern repeats.
Remainder 99 = 11 (as per pattern)
Hence, answer is option (a).
18. Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the resulting number?
(a) 64
(b) 80
(c) 81
(d) 100
Answer: (c)
The Number is 111111111 - It is divisible by 9 (by divisibility rule)
Sum of digits of 111111111x111111111 will also be divisible by 9, therefore, answer will be the option which is a multiple of 9, i.e. 81. So, answer is option (c).
19. What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100?
(a) 855
(b) 856
(c) 910
(d) 911
Answer: (b)
There are total 91 numbers and 9 groups of 0 to 9 (in singles digits) and 10 groups of 1 to 9 each (in doubles digits) and 100.
We know that sum of first n natural numbers = n (n + 1) / 2
So, sum of 1 to 9 = 9 × 10/2 = 45
Sum = 19 × 45 = 855
Adding 1 from 100, we get answer as 856.
20. ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can be drawn using any three points as vertices out of these six points ?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 24
Answer: (c)
As none of the 3 points are collinear, the number of distinct triangles can be found using the formula = 6C3 = (6 × 5 × 4) / (3 × 2 × 1) = 20
Directions for the following 3 (three) item :
Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow the passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
The emissions humans put into the atmosphere now will affect the climate in the middle of the century and onwards. Technological change, meanwhile, could make a future transition away from fossil fuels cheap or it might not, leaving the world with a terrible choice between sharply reducing emissions at huge cost or suffering through the effects of unabated warming. Businesses that do not hedge against the threat of uncertain outcomes fail. The world cannot afford such recklessness on climate change.
21. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crucial message conveyed by the author of the passage ?
(a) Businesses that cause emissions may need to close down or pay for pollution in future.
(b) The only solution is technological development related to the issues of climate change.
(c) Waiting to deal with carbon emissions until technology improves is not a wise strategy.
(d) Since future technological change is uncertain, new industries should be based on renewable energy sources.
Answer: (c)
Option (a) is incorrect. Passage says “Businesses that do not hedge against the threat of uncertain outcomes fail.” This line cannot be extrapolated to say that businesses would need to close down or pay for pollution in future.
Option (b) is incorrect: the statement is using extreme terms (“only solution”) which cannot be inferred from the passage.
Option (c) is correct: The passage says, “Technological change, meanwhile, could make a future transition away from fossil fuels cheap or it might not...” This is the main message of the author wherein he prods us to act faster and not wait.
Option (d) is incorrect: This statement is too specific and we know that inference is a more generic statement drawn from the given statement/s.
Passage – 2
Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems, but this idea appears almost impossible to adopt. With environmental problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia. With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death, literally. And yet, barring a few, there seems to be the same collective lethargy towards making their choices.
22. Which one of the following statements best implies the most rational assumption that can be made from the passage ?
(a) We are likely to spend more money on cure than prevention.
(b) It is the job of the government to solve our environmental and public health problems.
(c) Health can be protected even if environmental problems go on unattended.
(d) Loss of traditional lifestyle and the influence of western values led to some unhealthy way of living.
Answer: (a)
As mentioned earlier in this doc, Imply means to “to indicate or suggest something without actually stating it,” and infer commonly means “to guess or use reasoning to come to a conclusion based on what has been suggested.
Option (a) is correct. This option is not directly addressed but hinted in the passage. The passage discusses the difficulty in adopting substantial changes in lifestyle to reduce environmental or health problems, ie people avoiding prevention.
Option (b) is incorrect as government job or role is not hinted in the passage.
Statement (c) is incorrect. Author hints that going after health should be logical than environmental problems but the given statement means entirely different thing which is not hinted/suggested.
Statement (d) is incorrect as too far fetched.
Passage – 3
Many people are not eating the right food. For some, it is simply a decision to stick with food they enjoy but which is not too healthy. This is leading to an increase in non-communicable disease. This is turn leads to major burden on our health-care systems that have the potential to derail the economic progress which is essential for the poor to improve their lives. For others, it is about limited access to nutritious food or a lack of affordability, leading to monotonous diets that to not provide the daily nutrients for them to develop fully. Part of the reason nutrition is under threat worldwide is that our food systems are not properly responding to nutritional needs. Somewhere along that long road from farm to fork, there are serious detours taking place.
23. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage ?
(a) The scheme of Universal Basic Income should be implemented worldwide as a way of poverty alleviation.
(b) We must place food-based nutrition at the centre of our policy debate.
(c) Nutritional status of food should be improved by creating appropriate genetically modified crops.
(d) Using modern food processing technologies, we must fortify food items with required nutrient elements.
Answer: (b)
Crux is the most important or difficult part of a problem i.e. main point of the passage that is explicitly stated by the author.
Option (a) is incorrect. Although this can be inferred from the passage, it is not explicitly stated by the author. Hence, we can rule this option out.
Option (b) is correct as passage discusses lack of nutrition and various reasons surrounding it. When author talks about farm to fork, he is suggesting policy level course correction.
Option (c) and Option (d) are incorrect as they discuss ideas which are beyond the scope of the passage
24. Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the following :
1. p + q + r – s - t is definitely even.
2. 2p + q + 2r - 2s + t is definitely odd.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
When we add or subtract even number of odd numbers, (ex - 5-3 or 3+7) we always get even number as answer. Also, doing addition & subtraction on even numbers always yields even number, so p + q + r - s - t will always be even.
Now, the problem with Statement 2 (2p + q + 2r – 2s + t) is that we don't know how many of the two odd numbers are converted to even numbers by multiplying with 2. So, the resulting expression can be odd if there is only 1 odd number left.
(You can put values to verify this and check)
So, statement 2 is incorrect. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
25. Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c.
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