Q.No

UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2025 - QUESTION

OUR TEST BATCH LINKS [ Read with our Explanation given]

1.

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

(a) Silver iodide and potassium iodide  
(b) Silver nitrate and potassium iodide  
(c) Silver iodide and potassium nitrate  
(d) Silver nitrate and potassium chloride 

Answer: A 

Explanation:  

• Artificial rain refers to the process of inducing precipitation through cloud seeding, a weather modification technique. Cloud seeding, a weather modification technique, enhances precipitation by dispersing chemicals leading to rainfall. 
• It is primarily used to enhance rainfall, combat drought conditions, and reduce air pollution. The method involves dispersing chemicals like silver iodide, potassium iodide, and dry ice into clouds to encourage the formation of raindrops using aircraft or helicopters. 
• These chemicals act as nuclei around which water vapour condenses to form larger droplets, eventually leading to rainfall. 
• The success of cloud seeding depends on the presence of sufficient moisture and appropriate atmospheric conditions. 

Hence, option A is correct. 

Our Test 9. Question.No.58.

Consider the following:

1. Silver iodide 

2. Sodium chloride 

3. Dry ice

4. Potassium Iodide 

Which of the above are used in cloud seeding?.

(a) 1 & 2

(b) 1 & 4

(c) 1 & 3

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

2.

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa', Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara?  

(a)Mahendravarman I  

(b) Simhavishnu  

(c) Narasimhavarman I  

(d) Simhavarman 

Ans: (a) 

• Mahendravarman I (590-630 CE), became the ruler after his father -- Simhavishnu’s demise. Under him the Pallavas became a major political power. He was a king with many accomplishments.  
• He is known for his literary works and templebuilding activities and he was also a skilled veena player. He promoted many artistic activities like drama, painting, music.  
• He took the titles of:  

§  Mattavilasa (addicted to pleasures),  

§  Chitrakarapuli (tiger among the painters),  

§  Lalitankura (charming offspring),  

§  Gunabhara (virtuous),  

§  Chattakari (temple builder),  

§  Vichitrachitta (curious-minded).  

Hence, option (a) is correct.  

Our Test 19. Question.No.68.

Pallava King who authored Mataa vilasa prahasna (the delight of drunkards) and was also associated with the Kudimiyanmalai musical inscriptions

(a) Mahendarvarman  

(b) Nandivarman  

(c) Narashima varman  

(d) Avanti varman

3.

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of  

(a) Samudragupta  

(b) Chandragupta II  

(c) Kumaragupta I  

(d) Skandagupta 

Ans: (b) 

Exp:  

• 
  
  • He is credited with maintaining nine luminaries (navaratna) in his court. The great Sanskrit poet and playwright Kalidasa was the most notable of them all.  
  • The Chinese Buddhist pilgrim Fa Hien (AD 404–411) visited India during Chandragupta II’s reign. He has left an account of the life of people in India in the fifth century AD. 
• Chandragupta II (AD 375–414) also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya is remembered for his patronage of art and literature.  

Hence, option (b) is correct.  

Our Test 5. Question.No.11.

1.Fa-Hien

2. Kalidasa

3. Amarasimha

4. Hieun Tsang

How many of the above personalities were associated with the reign of Gupta king Chandragupta II?.

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Our Test 15. Question.No.35.

In his account, Fa-Hien does not refer to  
(a) Peace and order in the middle kingdom 
(b) Severity of criminal justice system 
(c) Internal and external trade of India was in a progressive stage.
(d) Vegetarianism of the common people

4.

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL)to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?  

(a)The European Union  
(b) The World Bank  
(c) The Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development 
(d) FAO  

Answer: A 

Explanation:  

• The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was enacted by the European Union (EU). This law is a key element of the EU's Biodiversity Strategy and aims to restore the health of Europe's ecosystems. The EU's Environment Council adopted the law on June 17, 2024.  
• The Nature Restoration Regulation is the first continent-wide, comprehensive law of its kind. It is a key element of the EU Biodiversity Strategy, which sets binding targets to restore degraded ecosystems, in particular those with the most potential to capture and store carbon and to prevent and reduce the impact of natural disasters. 

Hence, option (a) is correct.  

Our Test 5. Question.No.98.

With reference to the targets to be met under the new European Union’s Nature Restoration law, consider the following statements:

1. Reversing the decline of pollinator population by 2030

2. Restoring drained peatlands under agricultural use

3. Restoring at least 25,000 km of rivers to a free-flowing state by 2030

Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

5.

Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): 

       I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.  

     II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. 

  III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after World War II.   

Which of the statements given above are correct?   

(a) I and II only   

(b) II and III only   

(c) I and III only   

(d) I, II and III  

Ans: (c)  

Explanation:   

• The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is the main lending arm of the World Bank Group and primarily provides loans and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries. So, statement I is correct.  
• The IBRD is part of the World Bank Group, which includes several institutions including: 
• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) 
• International Development Association (IDA) 
• International Finance Corporation (IFC) 
• Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA) 
• International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID). They work together, not singlehandedly. So, statement II is not correct.  
• The IBRD was established in 1944 with the initial purpose of financing the reconstruction of European countries devastated by World War II. So, statement III is correct. 

Hence, option (c) is correct.  

Our Test 20. Question.No.51.

How many of the following is/are correct about International Bank for  Reconstruction and Development? 1. It is a Bretton Woods institution. 2. It was founded to cater the financial needs of poorer countries. 3. It promotes sustainable, equitable and job creating growth. 4. It supports long term human and social development needs. (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

6.

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?  

(a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants  

(b) These are explosives in military weapons  

(c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles  

(d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion 

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 

CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are all high-energy explosive compounds developed for military applications, particularly in warheads, bombs, and advanced munitions.  

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Our Test 2. Question.No.27.

SEBEX 2, seen in the news refer to a/an

(a) SEBI funded trading portal

(b) Social Stock Exchange

(c) Experimental Bio Reactor

(d) Explosive substance

SEBEX 2 is based on high-melting explosive (HMX) technology. 

7.

Suppose the revenue expenditure is 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are 60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of 10,000 crores and interest payments of 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?  

1. Revenue deficit is 20,000 crores.  
2. Fiscal deficit is 10,000 crores.  
3. Primary deficit is 4,000 crores.   

Select the correct answer using the code given below.   

(a) I and II only   

(b) II and III only   

(c) I and III only   

(d) I, II and III  

Ans: (d) 

Explanation:  

1.     Revenue Deficit:  
Revenue Deficit=Revenue Expenditure−Revenue Receipts   
=80, 000 crores−60, 000 crores=20, 000 crores  
So, Statement I is correct.  

2.     Fiscal Deficit:  
Fiscal Deficit=Borrowings=10, 000 crores  
So, Statement II is correct.  

3.     Primary Deficit:  
Primary Deficit=Fiscal Deficit−Interest Payments  
=10, 000 crores−6, 000 crores=4, 000 crores  
So, Statement III is correct.  

Hence, option (d) is correct.  

Our Test 21. Question.No.55.

1. Gross Fiscal Deficit is the excess of a government's total expenditure, including loans net of recovery, over its revenue receipts and non-debt capital receipts. 2. Primary Deficit is the difference between the fiscal deficit of the current year and the interest paid on the borrowings of the previous year   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Read WITH Explanation & formula given

Our Test 30. (Full Mock 5) Question.No.14.

Consider the following: 1. Gross Fiscal Deficit is obtained by excluding both revenue receipts and nondebt creating capital receipts from total expenditure.   2. Gross primary deficit refers to the difference between the current year's fiscal deficit and interest payments made on the previous year's borrowings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8.

Consider the following statements:  

1. No virus can survive in ocean water. 
2. No virus can infect bacteria. 
3. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. 

How many of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three  

(d) None

Answer: (d)

Explanation: 

• A number of studies have investigated the ability of viruses to survive in marine systems and be transported from their sources to marine beaches or shellfish waters. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Viruses can infect a variety of living organisms, including bacteria (Bacteriophage), plants, and animals.  Hence, statement 2 is not correct 
• Viruses may also change cellular transcriptional activity, and protein-protein interactions, promoting efficient production of progeny virus.  Hence, statement 3 is not correct. 
• For some viruses, specific cellular biochemical functions may be stimulated in order to enhance virus replication. 

Hence, option (d) is correct. 

Our Test 24. Question.No.8.

Consider the following:  

(1) Can be crystallized

(2) Energy producing enzyme system is absent.

(3) Inactive outside the host.

Which of these is/are not the characters of Virus?.

(a) 1 only  

(b) 1 and 2 

(c) 2 and 3  

(d) None of these

Viruses are one of the most numerous microorganisms on our earth and infect all types ofcells (such as human cells, animal cells, plant cells, bacterial cells and fungal cells etc). So,viruses are interesting microbes to study for what they can tell us about the genetics andbiochemistry of cellular mechanisms and about the process to develop a disease. 

9.

Consider the following statements: 

    I.   Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. 

  II.   Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. 

III.   Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III  

Answer: (a) 

Explanation 

o  Capital receipts are defined as receipts that either create a liability (e.g., borrowings) or reduce assets (e.g., disinvestment). 

o  Example: Borrowing increases government liabilities, while selling shares in a PSU reduces assets. 

o  Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

o  Borrowings (e.g., loans, bonds) create a liability, making them capital receipts. 

o  Disinvestment (sale of government assets like PSU shares) reduces assets, also qualifying as capital receipts. 

o  Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

o  Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt. It does not create a liability; instead, it is income for the government. 

o  Example: Interest from loans granted to states or PSUs is recurring income and classified under non-tax revenue. 

o  Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct. 

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Our Test 28 {FULL MOCK 3]. Question.No.12.

1. Disinvestment receipts

2. Interest receipts

3. Small savings

4. Net market borrowings

How many of the above is/are a part of the capital receipt of the Government of India?.

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the four

(d) Only three

Note:

2 is not correct.

o  Capital receipts are those receipts of the government that either create a liability or reduce financial assets. These receipts are typically non-recurring in nature. It consists of:

o  the money earned by selling assets (or disinvestment) such as shares of public enterprises, and

o  the money received in the form of borrowings or repayment of loans by states.

o  Disinvestment Receipts: These are capital receipts as they involve the sale of government assets (like stakes in public sector enterprises), which reduces financial assets. 

o  Interest Receipts: These are not capital receipts; they are revenue receipts as they do not create a liability or reduce an asset. 

o  Small Savings: These are considered capital receipts because they create a liability for the government (as the government has to repay this money in the future).  

o  Net Market Borrowing: This is a capital receipt as it involves borrowing from the market, which creates a liability for the government. 

​Revenue Receipt of the Central Government:

o  Revenue Receipts are receipts which do not have a direct impact on the assets and liabilities of the government.

o  It consists of the money earned by the government through tax (such as excise duty, and income tax) and non-tax sources (such as dividend income, profits, and interest receipts).

10.

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect 

(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran   

(b) India to Central Asia via China   

(c) India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar   

(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan  

Ans: (a)

Explanation:  

• The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200-kilometer-long multimodal transportation network that connects India with Iran, Central Asia, Russia, and Europe. The INSTC is designed to facilitate the movement of goods from India to these regions using a combination of sea, rail, and road routes.  
• The INSTC starts from Mumbai (India) and reaches the Iranian ports of Chabahar or Bandar Abbas by sea. From there, goods move overland through Iran, then across the Caspian Sea to Russia, and further into Europe. The corridor also provides access to Central Asian countries such as Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, and Azerbaijan.  
• The Chabahar Port in Iran is a critical component of the INSTC, providing India with direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan. 

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Our Test 21. Question.No.32.

1. It connects Mumbai to Eurasia via the International North South Transport Corridor. 2. It is at Chabahar. Which of the statements given above is/are correct regarding The Shahid Beheshti Port?  (a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Read WITH Explanation

11.

A country's fiscal deficit stands at 50,000 crores. It is receiving 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?  

(a) 48,500 crores  

(b) 51,500 crores   

(c) 58,500 crores   

(d) None of the above  

Ans: (a)

Explanation:  

• Primary Deficit=Fiscal Deficit−Interest Payments   
• Fiscal Deficit =  Rs 50,000 crores  
• Interest Payments =  Rs 1,500 crores. 
• Primary Deficit= Rs 50, 000 crores− Rs 1, 500 crores= Rs 48, 500 crores.  

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Our Test 30. (Full Mock 5) Question.No.14.

Consider the following: 1. Gross Fiscal Deficit is obtained by excluding both revenue receipts and nondebt creating capital receipts from total expenditure.   2. Gross primary deficit refers to the difference between the current year's fiscal deficit and interest payments made on the previous year's borrowings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

12.

Consider the following statements:  

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.   

Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement I and II are correct but statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and II are correct and statement II does not explain Statement I  

(c)Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct 

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct 

Answer: D  

Explanation:  

• States have the power to make rules for minor minerals under Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. According to the section the State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules for, regulating the grant of 3 [quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions] in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Hence, statement I is not correct. 
• The Central Government has the power to notify which minerals are classified as minor minerals under Section 3(e) of the same Act. Hence, statement is correct.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.  

Our Test 30. Question.No.10. Full Mock 5

Consider the following minerals:  1. Bentonite  2. Chromite  3. Kyanite  4. Sillimanite How many of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals in India?   (a) All the four (b) Only two  (c) Only three (d) None

Read WITH Explanation

See table

13.

Consider the following pairs: 

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three  

(d) None  

Answer: (c)  

Explanation  

• Botswana is one of the world’s leading producers of diamonds by value. Jwaneng and Orapa are major mines. The diamond industry contributes significantly to Botswana’s GDP and has transformed it into one of Africa’s most stable economies. Hence, pair I is correct.  
• Chile is among the top three global producers of lithium, essential for batteries used in electric vehicles and electronics. The country holds a major portion of the world’s lithium reserves in the Atacama Desert, where lithium is extracted from salt flats (salars). Chile is part of the “Lithium Triangle” along with Bolivia and Argentina. Hence, pair II is correct.  
• Indonesia is the largest producer of nickel in the world. It has vast nickel reserves and has leveraged this resource as part of its strategy to develop a domestic EV battery supply chain. The government has banned raw nickel exports to encourage local processing and attract foreign investment in nickel smelters and battery production. Hence, pair III is correct. 

Our Test 4. Question.No.9.

Where is Karowe Diamond Mine? (a) Ghana (b) Congo (c) Botswana (d) Argentina

Our Test 27. Question.No.84.

1. Spodumene deposits are well-known as a primary source of lithium. 2. Bolivia is the world's biggest producer of spodumene. Which of the above is/are correct?   (a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Australia is the world's biggest producer of spodumene. While Bolivia does have significant lithium reserves, including those within the "Lithium Triangle" with Chile and Argentina, it's not primarily known for having the largest spodumene deposits; rather, it's known for its vast brine-type lithium deposits in the Salar de Uyuni.

14.

Consider the following substances:  

1. Ethanol 
2. Nitroglycerine  
3. Urea  

Coal gasificationtechnology can be used in the production of how many of them?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three  

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

•  
• Coal gasification is a process that transforms Coal into a Synthetic gas (Syngas), consisting of mixture of gasses such as Carbon monoxide (CO), Hydrogen (H₂), Carbon dioxide (CO₂), Methane (CH₄) and Water vapor (H₂O).  

SynGas produced from Coal gasification can be used in producing Synthetic Natural Gas (SNG), energy fuel (methanol & ethanol), ammonia for fertilizers and petro-chemicals. 

Our Test 4. Question.No.97.

Consider the following statements w.r.t. Coal Gasification.

1.  Syngas produced from coal gasification is a a liquid fuel.  

2. The process of coal gasification significantly reduces the emission of carbon dioxide when compared to traditional coal combustion.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?.  

(a) 1 only  

(b) 2 only  

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15.

Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. 

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. 

III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. 

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) I and III only  

(b) I and II only  

(c) I, II and III  

(d) II and III only

Answer: C 

Explanation:  

• The atmosphere is a mixture of gases that surrounds the Earth. It helps make life possible by providing us with air to breathe, shielding us from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation coming from the Sun, trapping heat to warm the planet, and preventing extreme temperature differences between day and night.  
• Without the atmosphere, temperatures would be well below freezing everywhere on Earth's surface (Hence, statement 1 is correct).  
• Instead, the heat absorbed and trapped by our atmosphere keeps our planet's average surface temperature at a balmy 15°C (59°F), Hence, statement 2 is correct.  
• Some of the atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. Changes in the amounts of these gases directly affect our climate (Hence, statement 3 is correct).

Hence, option C is correct. 

Our Test 7. Question.No.27.

Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon Di Oxide is transparent to incoming solar radiation and opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation.

2. Oxygen becomes increasingly sparse at higher altitudes in the atmosphere due to decreasing atmospheric pressure and density.

3. Argon makes up around 0.03% of the atmosphere.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?.

(a) 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 only

Explanation Given [Also Cocneptually Covered in Many Questions in Our Tests]

Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is transparent to incoming solar radiation, allowing sunlight to pass through the atmosphere. However, it is relatively opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation, particularly in the infrared wavelengths. This property contributes to the greenhouse effect, where certain gases, including carbon dioxide, absorb and re-emit heat energy, warming the lower atmosphere and the Earth’s surface.

Oxygen gas (O₂) becomes increasingly sparse at higher altitudes in the atmosphere due to decreasing atmospheric pressure and density. Its concentration becomes negligible at around 120 km above the Earth’s surface, marking the transition between Earth’s atmosphere and outer space.

16.

Consider the following statements:  

   I.   India has joined the Minerals Şecurity Partnership as a member. 

  II.   India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. 

III.   The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III 

Answer: (c)  

Explanation  

o   India joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023 during Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to the United States.  

§  The MSP includes 14 countries and the European Union, focusing on securing global critical mineral supply chains. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

o   While India has identified 30 critical minerals (e.g., lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite), it is not self-sufficient in all of them (not a resource-rich country vis-a-vis all 30 minerals). 

§  For example, India relies entirely on imports for lithium, cobalt, nickel, and other minerals critical for clean energy and electronics. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct. 

o   The MMDR Amendment Act, 2023 empowers the Central Government to exclusively conduct auctions for mining lease and composite licence for 24 critical minerals. 

§  This amendment aims to accelerate exploration and reduce import dependency by involving private and foreign investment in deep-seated and critical minerals.  

Hence, option (c) is Correct. 

Our Test 7. Question.No.69.

1. It is a US-led initiative. 

2. China is member of it.

3. European Union is not a part of it.

4. It aims to catalyse only public investment in critical mineral supply chains globally.

How many of these is/are true w.r.t. Mineral Security Network?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All four

(d) Only three

Explanation

India is now formally a part of the Minerals Security Finance Network, a US-led initiative aiming to strengthen cooperation among members to secure supply chains for critical minerals.

Some REs are available in India such as lanthanum, cerium, neodymium, praseodymium and samarium, while others such as dysprosium, terbium, europium that are classified as HREE are not available in Indian deposits in extractable quantities.

Our Test 30. [Full Mock 5] Question.No.10.

Consider the following minerals:  1. Bentonite  2. Chromite  3. Kyanite  4. Sillimanite How many of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals in India?   (a) All the four (b) Only two  (c) Only three (d) None

Read with Explnation.

17.

Consider the following statements:  

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.  

Statement II : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.  

Statement III : Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I  

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I  

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I  

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct 15.  

Ans: a 

Explanation: 

• Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is one of the most complex and frequently discussed elements in international climate negotiations.  
• It is at the heart of debates concerning sustainable development and international cooperation on climate change mitigation.  
• The reason Article 6 draws such attention globally is that it outlines frameworks for both market and non-market-based mechanisms, which are crucial to helping countries achieve their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Hence, statement I is correct. 
• It refers specifically to Article 6.2 and 6.4, which lay down the principles of carbon markets.  
• Article 6.2 facilitates bilateral and multilateral transfers of carbon credits, known as Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs), while Article 6.4 establishes a centralized UN-supervised carbon market mechanism, similar to the Clean Development Mechanism under the Kyoto Protocol. Hence, statement II is correct. 
• These frameworks allow countries to trade emission reductions, thereby reducing the overall cost of mitigation and promoting efficiency. 
• Article 6.8, which promotes non-market approaches.  
• These approaches include initiatives like capacity building, technology transfer, policy coordination, and financial support, enabling countries to pursue climate goals through cooperation that does not involve trading of carbon credits. Hence, statement III is correct. 
• This is particularly beneficial for developing countries, where climate action also needs to align with sustainable development priorities. 

Since both Statement II and Statement III accurately describe different components of Article 6, and both are the reasons why Article 6 is heavily discussed in global climate forums, they both explain Statement I. 

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Our Test 7. Question.No.82. [ Also, Many Questions on Paris Agreement - Articles]

Consider the following statements w.r.t. difference between the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement:

1. The Kyoto Protocol focused on reducing all anthropogenic greenhouse gases.

2. The Paris Agreement operationalizes the UNFCCC by requiring developed countries to reduce and limit greenhouse gas emissions as per the agreed terms.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18.

Consider the following statements: 

Statement I:  In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equator ward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I  
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct  
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct 

Answer: A 

Explanation:  

• Isotherms:  
• The temperature distribution is generally shown on the map with the help of isotherms. The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal temperature.  
• Distribution of Temperature: 
• In general the effect of the latitude on temperature is well pronounced on the map, as the isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere. In the northern hemisphere the land surface area is much larger than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of landmass and the ocean currents are well pronounced.  
• In January the isotherms deviate to the north (polewards) over the ocean and to the south (equatorwards) over the continent. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe.  Hence, Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Hence, option A is correct. 

Our Test 8. Question.No.64.

Consider the following statements w.r.t. Horizontal Distribution of Temperature in July.

1. High temperature regions are in north-west Argentina, east-central Africa, Borneo and central Australia.

2. In the northern hemisphere isotherms lines are irregular and closely spaced due to large expanse of land masses.

Which of the above is/are correct?.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation Given

When we study temperature across latitudes is known as horizontal distribution. It is shown by the "isotherm" lines on the map. Isotherm line is an imaginary line which joins places having equal temperature. After a detailed study of isotherms, we can understand the temperature of a particular place. If we look at the global level, January is considered the coldest month while July is the hottest month of the year. Both the months represent seasonal extremes of temperature. Therefore, we should study these months separately.

(i) Horizontal Distribution of Temperature in January: In the month of January, Winter season in the northern hemisphere and summer season in the southern hemisphere. Its main reason is the position of the sun which is vertically overhead near the tropic of Capricorn. High temperature regions are in the southern hemisphere i.e. north-west Argentina, east-central Africa, Borneo and central Australia. We can see Isotherms of 30° Celsius passing through these regions. In January, the landmass of the northern hemisphere is colder in comparison to ocean areas. In the northern hemisphere, the Northeastern part of Asia experiences low temperatures. Especially, the middle part of the continent shows a lower temperature than the oceans areas of the same latitude. Due to large expanse of water exist in the southern hemisphere; isotherms lines are regular and widely spaced. On the other hand, in the northern hemisphere isotherms lines are irregular and closely spaced due to large expanse of land masses.

(ii) Horizontal Distribution of Temperature in July: As the sun position is vertically overhead near the tropic of cancer in the month of July. Therefore, the northern hemisphere experiences summer seasons. High temperature is experienced in the entire northern hemisphere and isotherms line of 30° Celsius located between 10° north and 40° north latitudes places like south-eastern U.S.A, the Sahara, and Arabia, Iraq, Iran, Afghanistan, the Gobi Desert, Chani and Thar Desert of India have high temperatures. At the same time, the lowest temperature of 0° Celsius is also located in the northern hemisphere, especially in the central part of Greenland. The temperature of middle areas of the continents in the northern hemisphere is higher than oceans of the same latitude. Oceans areas have shown wider spacing isotherms lines than continents. 

19.

Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?  

    I.   Buying and selling Government bonds 

  II.   Buying and selling foreign currency 

III.   Pension fund management  

IV.   Lending to private companies 

  V.   Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.  

(a) I and II only

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I, III, IV and V

(d), II and V 

Answer: (a) 

o   The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank of India, established on 1st April 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It serves as the apex monetary authority, regulator of the banking system, and issuer of currency in India. The RBI does not function like a commercial bank; its income mainly arises from its regulatory and monetary functions. Key sources include: 

§  It earns interest income from the government bonds held in its portfolio. This remains one of its primary sources of revenue.   

§  Buying and selling government bonds: The RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMOs) by purchasing and selling government securities.  

§  Buying and selling foreign currency: It earns profits from exchange rate movements and interest on foreign assets. 

§  The "printing and distributing currency notes" is shown as expenditure in the RBI's financial statements, and not as an income receipt. 

o   Pension fund management (III) and lending to private companies (IV) are not sources of income for the RBI.

Hence, option (a) is correct.  

Our Test 9. Question.No.18.

1. The biggest contributor to India’s Forex reserves is gold.

2. The appreciation of the Euro and other major currencies contribute to the increase in reserves.

Which of the following statements is/are correct w.r.t. Forex Reserves?.  (a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

In India, the RBI Act of 1934 contains the enabling provisions for the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to act as the custodian of forex reserve, and manage reserves within the defined objectives.

The RBI Act of 1934 empowers the Reserve Bank of India to act as the custodian of the country’s foreign exchange reserves, and that includes the authority to buy and sell foreign currency under defined conditions.

Our Test 21. Question.No.16.

Consider the following.

1. Inflation rate trend downward as a result of tighter monetary policy regimes.

2. A tight monetary policy involves a selling government bond by the RBI. Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

A tight monetary policy, aimed at curbing inflation and cooling down an overheated economy, often involves the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) selling government bonds to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system.

Also conceptually covered in many other questions fro our Test batch.

20.

Consider the following statements: 

Statement I:  The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. 

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I  
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct  
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct 

Answer: C 

Explanation:  

• Atmosphere has a sufficient capacity to keep small solid particles, which may originate from different sources and include sea salts, fine soil, smoke-soot, ash, pollen, dust and disintegrated particles of meteors. Dust particles are generally concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere; yet, convectional air currents may transport them to great heights.  
• The higher concentration of dust particles is found in subtropical and temperate regions due to dry winds in comparison to equatorial and polar regions. Hence, Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct. 
• Dust and salt particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds. 

Hence, option C is correct. 

Our Test 7. Question.No.48.

Why does the earth experiences highest temperatures in the subtropics in the northern hemisphere rather than at the equator?.

(a) Subtropical areas tend to have less cloud cover than equatorial areas.

(b) Subtropical areas have longer day hours in the summer than the equatorial.

(c) Subtropical areas have an enhanced “green house effect” compared to equatorial areas.

(d) Subtropical areas are nearer to the oceanic areas than the equatorial locations.

Read with Explanation given

Our Test 8. Question.No.31.

1. high pressure

2. calm winds 

3. clear skies

4. little precipitation

5. dry subsiding air

How many of the above chracterise Horse Latitudes?.

(a) Only three

(b) Only two

(c) All five

(d) Only four

Note:

The subtropical high-pressure belts present around the Earth in-between 30° N - 35° N latitudes and 30° S - 35° S latitudes that are responsible for the generation of light winds and clear skies are known as the horse latitudes. The dry subsiding air present in these latitudes is responsible for the creation of a dry climate which results in non-tropical desert areas below them.

Subtropical high-pressure belts have more dry winds.

Our Test 7. Question.No.35.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Siberian Plain is an important source region for the formation of polar air masses.

2. The subtropical high-pressure belts are at around 30° N and S latitudes.

3. Hadley Cells are the high-latitude overturning circulations that have air rising at the equator and air sinking at roughly 66.5° latitude.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?.

(a) 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 only

Note:

Hadley Cells are the low-latitude overturning circulations that have air rising at the equator and air sinking at roughly 30° latitude.

The subtropical high-pressure belts at around 30° N and S latitudes form due to several factors:

1. Hadley Cell Circulation: Warm air near the equator rises, cools, and diverges poleward in the upper atmosphere. As it subsides around 30° N and S, it creates areas of high pressure.
2. Coriolis Effect: The Coriolis effect deflects air masses descending from higher latitudes towards the subtropical belts, leading to accumulation and high pressure.
3. Trade Winds: The converging trade winds from both hemispheres meet near the subtropics, causing air to sink and pressure to rise.

21.

Consider the following statements:  

1. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. 
2. Majorana1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). 
3. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) I and II only  

(b) II and III only  

(c) I and III only  

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c)

Explanation: 

• Majorana 1 Chip: 
• Microsoft introduced Majorana 1, the world's first quantum chip powered by a Topological Core architecture, which aims to revolutionize quantum computing. Hence, statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is not correct. 
• It is made of a material made from indium arsenide and aluminum to create what the tech giant calls, the “world’s first topoconductor,” a new type of material that can observe band control the Majorana particles. 
• Machine Learning (ML): 
• ML is a type of artificial intelligence that allows machines to learn from data without being explicitly programmed. 
• Deep learning is a subset of ML that uses complex neural networks to replicate human intelligence. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Our Test 21. Question.No.78.

“Majorana” seen in news refer to

(a) a volcanic mountain

(b) a martian rock

(c) an elementary particle

(d) an atomic state

Microsoft unveiled a new quantum chip called Majorana 1. According to its press release, it consists of four qubits made of a “new state of matter”.

22.

With reference to India, consider the following bodies:   

           I.            The Inter-State Council 

         II.            The National Security Council 

       III.            The Zonal Councils 

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None 

Answer: (a)   

Explanation: 

• Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter-State Council if he believes it serves public interest, and he may specify its duties, organisational structure, and procedures to promote Centre–state and inter-state coordination.  
• Thus, in pursuance of the above recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission, the Janata Dal Government headed by V. P. Singh established the Inter-State Council in 1990. 
• The National Security Council (NSC) is not a constitutional body. It was established in 1999 by the Government of India through an executive order to advise the Prime Minister on national security and strategic interests. 
• Zonal Councils were established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, not through any provision in the Constitution. They are statutory, not constitutional bodies. 
• The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone. 
• One more zonal council i.e. North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament– the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971. 

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Our Test 10. Question.No.55.

1. It is an executive body. 2. Home minister is its chairman. W.r.t. Inter-State Council (a) Only 1 is true.  (b) Both 1 and 2 are true. (c) Only 2 is true. (d) Both 1 and 2 are false.

Our Test 14. Question.No.66.

How many of the following is/are true w.r.t. Zonal Councils?  1. They are the statutory bodies. 2. There are seven zonal councils as of now. 3. North-Eastern Council is the latest Zonal council in the chronological order of formation. 4. One person is nominated by the NITI Aayog for each of the Zonal Councils. (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four

23.

Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme? 

(a) The Poona Pact  

(b) The Gandhi-Irwin (Delhi Pact) Agreement  

(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement  

(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935  

Answer: (a)  

Explanation:  

• Gandhiji intensified his campaign for the upliftment of Harijans (Scheduled Castes) following the Poona Pact of September 1932, which was signed between Madan Mohan Malviya and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. The Pact led to the abandonment of separate electorates for the depressed classes but introduced reservations in joint electorates, which Gandhi accepted only after launching a fast unto death.  
• Deeply affected by the plight of untouchables, Gandhi made their social emancipation a core part of his national movement. Shortly after the pact:  
• He founded the All-India Anti-Untouchability League (September 1932), later known as Harijan Sevak Sangh.  
• He launched the weekly Harijan (January 1933).  
• From 1933 to 1934, he undertook an all-India Harijan tour covering over 20,000 km to spread awareness, raise funds, and promote reforms.  
• His campaign stressed temple entry, social integration, and the abolition of caste discrimination.  
• Thus, the Poona Pact marked the turning point when Gandhiji formally incorporated Harijan upliftment into his political and social agenda.  

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Our Test 12. Question.No.11.

How many seats were given to depressed classes under Communal Award and Poona Pact? (a) 74 and 79 respectively (b) 71 and 147 respectively (c) 78 and 80 respectively (d) 78 and 69 resoectivelv

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/ambedkar-and-the-poona-pact/article31333684.ece

24.

Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS: 

    I.   The 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. 

 II.    Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. 

III.   The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) I and II           

(b) II and III 

(c) I and III         

(d) I only 

Ans: (A)

Explanation: 

The 16th BRICS Summit took place in Kazan, Russia, from October 22–24, 2024, under Russia’s Chairship.

Indonesia officially joined BRICS as a full member in January 2025, making it the 11th member of the bloc.

“The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was
“Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security”.

Our Test 12. Question.No.49.

1. United Arab Emirates 2. Ethiopia  3. Turkey 4. Azerbaijan  How many of the above are member sof BRICS? (a) None (b) Only two (c) Only three (d) All the four 

Explanation

The members of BRICS are:   • Brazil • China • Egypt • Ethiopia • India • Indonesia • Iran • Russia • South Africa • United Arab Emirates  Turkey, Azerbaijan and Malaysia have applied to become members, and several other countries have expressed interest in joining.

Our Test 16. Question.No.30.

BRICS partner country does not include

(a) Nigeria

(b) Bolivia

(c) Cuba

(d) Indonesia

Our Test 10. Question.No.55.

Explanation Reads

The 16^th BRICS summit held in Kazan, Russia (October 22-24, 2024) marked a critical point in the group’s evolution, highlighting its continued survival and growth amidst geopolitical challenges, including the Russia-Ukraine war and China-India relations. The summit reflected BRICS' transition from emerging economies to a broader platform representing the Global South, signaling its rejuvenation despite past struggles and internal differences.

25.

Consider the following space missions: 

               I.Axiom-4  

             II.SpaDeX  

           III.Gaganyaan  

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?   

(a) Only one 
(b) Only two  
(c) All three  
(d) None  

Answer: C 

Explanation:  

• Microgravity research, often conducted in space or simulated on Earth, studies the effects of reduced or absent gravity on various phenomena. It allows scientists to investigate fundamental processes, develop new materials, and explore how the human body adapts to spaceflight.  
• ISRO's SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment) mission actively encourages and supports microgravity research. While its primary objective is to develop and demonstrate in-space rendezvous and docking technologies, it also incorporates several microgravity experiments. 
• Gaganyaan mission is designed to support Indian scientists in conducting microgravity experiments through collaborations with other space agencies. It is intended to build upon the knowledge gained from missions like Axiom-4.   
• Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4): It  is a private spaceflight to the ISS operated by Axiom Space (US-based space-infrastructure development company), using the SpaceX Crew Dragon spacecraft. This mission explicitly supports microgravity research, focusing on areas like the impact of microgravity on edible microalgae and the growth of salad seeds in space.  
• SpaDeX: SpaDeX mission is a cost-effective technology demonstrator mission for the demonstration of in-space docking using two small spacecraft launched by PSLV.  
• Gaganyaan: The Gaganyaan Mission is India’s ongoing project to send a 3-day manned mission to the Low Earth Orbit (LEO) of 400 km with a crew of 3 members and bring them safely back to Earth.  

Hence, option (c) is correct 

Our Test 13.  Question.No.68.

How many of the below are a part of health effects of Microgravity?. 1. muscle atrophy 2. osteoporosis 3. increase in blood volume 4. cancer 5. even circadian rhythm (a) Only four  (b) Only three (c) Only two  (d) All the five

Read with Explanation

Axiom-4

• Purpose: Conducts extensive microgravity experiments aboard the International Space Station (ISS).
• Research Areas: Human health, material sciences, biotechnology, and agriculture.
• Collaboration: ISRO and ESA have jointly shortlisted several Indian-led microgravity experiments for this mission.

SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment)

• Primary Goal: Demonstrates docking technology for future space stations.
• Microgravity Role: Includes biological experiments like plant growth in space—cowpea seeds successfully germinated under microgravity conditions.

Gaganyaan

• Mission Type: India’s first human spaceflight program.
• Microgravity Focus: Plans to conduct biological and physical science experiments in microgravity.
• Partnerships: ISRO collaborates with the Department of Biotechnology to explore space biotechnology under microgravity.

26.

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? 

       I.     It has recommended grants of Rs 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. 

     II.     II.45 % of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.   

  III.     45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.   

   IV.     It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.  

Select the correct answer using the code given below.  

(a) I, II and III   

(b) I, II and IV   

(c) I, III and IV   

(d) II, III and IV  

Ans: (c)  

Explanation:  

• The 15th Finance Commission (XVFC) recommended a total grant of Rs 4,800 crores for the period 2022–23 to 2025–26 to incentivize States to enhance educational outcomes, especially in school education. This grant is meant to reward States that show improvement in learning outcomes and governance in education. So, statement I is correct.  
• The XVFC recommended devolution of 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes to the States for the period 2021–2026, continuing the level from the 14th Finance Commission but reducing from 42% recommended initially to accommodate the funding requirements of the newly formed Union Territories (J&K and Ladakh). So, statement II is not correct.  
• The XVFC recommended a performance-based incentive of Rs 45,000 crores to be given to States that carry out specific agricultural reforms. So, statement III is correct.  
• The XVFC reintroduced the ‘tax effort’ criterion (previously dropped) in its horizontal devolution formula to encourage and reward better fiscal performance by States. It assigned a weight of 2.5% to this criterion. It is calculated as the ratio of a state’s tax-to-GSDP, rewarding those who generate more revenue. So, statement IV is correct.  

Hence, option (c) is correct.  

Our Test 130. Question.No.70.

Which of the following is/are true w.r.t. “Untied grants” report?.  (a) It is an earmarked fund for the purpose of encouraging local level planning. (b) It is a part of the Fifteenth Finance Commission grants. (c) Both (a) & (b). (d) Neither (a) nor (b).

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/december-27-2024-current-affairs

27.

Consider the following statements regarding Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:   

       I.          If an area in a State is declared as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government loses its executive power, and a local body assumes total administration of such areas. 

     II.          The Union Government can take over total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendation of the Governor. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) I only  

(b) II only 

(c) Both I and II 

(d) Neither I nor II 

Answer: (d)  

Explanation: 

• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. 
• The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area. 
• With regards to scheduled areas under the Fifth Schedule, the State Government does not lose its executive power. However, they are subject to some restrictions. Hence, statement I is NOT correct. 
• The Governor of the State has special responsibilities and can direct that certain laws may not apply or may apply with modifications to Scheduled Areas. 
• The Centre can also give directions to the states regarding the administration of such areas. 
• The Union Government does not take over administration of Scheduled Areas on the recommendation of the Governor. It is the Governor who exercises discretionary powers regarding administration and law application in these areas, and he may submit reports to the President. Hence, statement II is NOT correctly matched. 
• However, the Constitution does not empower the Union Government to directly take over total administration of Scheduled Areas. 

Hence, option (d) is correct. 

Our Test 15. Question.No.11.

Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?  (a) It relates to the special provision for administration of certain areas in the States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.  (b) Tribal Advisory Councils are to be constituted to give advice under the Fifth Schedule.  (c) The Governor is not authorised, to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled Tribes. (d) The Governors of the States in which there are scheduled areas have to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of such areas.

28.

Consider the following statements  

Statement I : Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. 

Statement II : Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. 

Statement III : Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I  

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I  

(c) Only one of the Statements II and Statement  III is correct and that explain statement t I  

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

1. Ans: b 

Explanation: 

• As per the World Economic Forum, the cement industry is responsible for approximately 8% of global CO₂ emissions. The two major sources of these emissions are the calcination of limestone and the combustion of fossil fuels during cement production. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• In the production of cement, raw materials like limestone (a source of calcium carbonate) and clay or shale (rich in silica, alumina, and iron) are ground and mixed. 
• These materials are then heated in kilns to produce clinker, the key intermediate product in cement. Hence, statement II is correct. 
• Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a byproduct of a chemical conversion process used in the production of clinker, a component of cement, in which limestone (CaCO3) is converted to lime(CaO). CaCO3 →CaO+CO2 . Hence, statement III is correct. 
• This chemical reaction is a major contributor to direct CO₂ emissions from the cement sector and is unavoidable in the current production process. 

Therefore, all the three statements are correct, and Statements III help explain why the cement industry is a significant source of CO₂ emissions.  

Hence, option (b) is correct. 

Our Test 2. Question.No.42.

Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?

1. Construction of base road

2. Improvement of agricultural soil

3. Production of cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 Silica (SiO₂) is a major component of steel slag. Steel slag is primarily composed of oxides of calcium, silicon, iron, and magnesium, along with smaller amounts of aluminum, manganese, and other elements.  Statement II

Our Test 3. Question.No.43.

The continued growth in the production of iron ore and limestone in the current financial year reflects robust demand conditions in user industries such as steel and cement.

Our Test 23. Question.No.30, 38.

The continued growth in the

29.

Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. 

II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. 

III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. 

IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) I and II   

(b) II and III 

(c) I and IV    

(d) I only 

Ans: (d) 

Explanation: 

• Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (MIMSTEC): 
• BIMSTEC is a regional organization that aims to foster multifaceted technical and economic cooperation among countries in the Bay of Bengal region. 
• Key Facts in respect of BIMSTEC: 
• In 1997, Myanmar joined, and the grouping was renamed BIMST-EC. 
• With the inclusion of Nepal and Bhutan in 2004, the name was further changed to BIMSTEC. Hence, statement III is not correct. 
• It comprises 7 member states i.e., Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand till January 2025.  Hence, statement I is correct 
• It came into existence with the adoption of the Bangkok Declaration, 1997.  Hence, statement II is not correct.  
• Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand are founding member States of BIMSTEC then known as BIST-EC (Economic Cooperation). 
• In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by Nepal. Hence, statement IV is not correct. 

Hence, option (d) is correct. 

Our Test 2. Question.No.90.

Consider the following statements w.r.t. BIMSTEC:

1. It had initially four Members.

2. Myanmar was one of its founding members.

(a) Only 1 is true

(b) Only 2 is true

(c) 1 and 2 are true

(d) 1 and 2 are false

Read with Explanation given

All the points covered.

30.

Consider the following statements: 

       I.    On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.  

     II.    According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.  

   III.    The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) I and II only  
(b) II and III only  
(c) I and III only  
(d) I, II and III  

Answer: C 

Explanation:  

• Article 94 of the Constitution states that the Speaker does not vacate office upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha and continues until a new Speaker is elected. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• The Constitution does not mandate resignation from a political party on being elected as Speaker. Though by convention the Speaker is expected to act impartially, formal resignation is not required. Hence, statement II is not correct.  
• Article 94(c) and Rule 11 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha allow removal of the Speaker by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha (i.e; effective majority). Such resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice.. Hence, statement III is correct. 

Hence, option(c)  is correct.  

Our Test 27. (FULL MOCK 2)  Question.No.36.

Consider the following statements: 

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House. 

2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is and automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President. 

3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House.  Which of these statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only  (b) 2 and 3 only  (c) 1, 2 and 3 only  (d) 1 and 2 only

Read WITH Explanation

Our Test 1. Question.No.37.

Consider the following

Our Test 6. Question.No.37 and 89

Consider the following

31.

Consider the following statements about PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: 

1. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.  
2. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar_rooftop systems at grassroot levels. 
3. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building.   

Which of the statements given above are correct?   

(a) I and II only   

(b) I and III only   

(c) II and III only   

(d) I, II and III  

Ans: (d) 

Explanation:   

• The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana aims to install solar rooftop systems in one crore households by March 2027. Hence, statement I is correct.  
• The scheme guidelines and official documents state that the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) will conduct training at the grassroots for installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of solar rooftop systems. Hence, statement II is correct.  
• The scheme has set a target to create over 3 lakh skilled personnel through fresh skilling and upskilling initiatives. This includes training at least 1 lakh individuals as Solar PV Technicians, contributing to the development of a skilled workforce in the renewable energy sector. Hence, statement III is correct.  

Hence, option (d) is correct.  

Our Test 28. [Full Mock 3] Question.No.48.

1. They use solar thermal technology to convert sunlight into electricity.  2. Electricity generated from solar panels can not be used without inverter in most home appliances of India.  3. Maharastra has the maximum installed capacity for the rooftop solar system in India.  Which of the above is/are true w.r.t. rooftop solar panels?. Select the correct answer using the code given below:  (a) 2 only  (b) 1 and 2 only  (c) 2 and 3 only  (d) 1, 2 and 3

PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijlee Yojana Details given in our Explanation

32.

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements: 

1. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.  
2. Marine phytoplankton and photo synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world's oxygen.  
3. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I and II  

(b) II only  

(c) I and III 

(d) None of the above statements is correct 

Ans: (b)  

Exp:  

• Scientists estimate that roughly half of the oxygen production on Earth comes from the ocean. The majority of this production is from oceanic plankton — drifting plants, algae, and some bacteria that can photosynthesize.  
• One particular species, Prochlorococcus, is the smallest photosynthetic organism on Earth. But this little bacteria produces up to 20% of the oxygen in our entire biosphere. That’s a higher percentage than all of the tropical rainforests on land combined.  
• It’s important to remember that although the ocean produces at least 50% of the oxygen on Earth, roughly the same amount is consumed by marine life. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.  
• Scientists estimate that at least 50% of the oxygen in our atmosphere has been produced by phytoplankton. At the same time, they are responsible for drawing down significant portions of the carbon dioxide from the air. Hence, statement 2 is correct.   
• Oxygen content is highest at the surface water for two main reasons; this is where oxygen dissolves into the ocean from the atmosphere, and the surface water is where oxygen is produced by phytoplankton through photosynthesis.  
• Respiration is also occurring in the surface waters, but the rate of photosynthetic oxygen production is greater than the rate of removal through respiration. 

It should be noted that even though dissolved oxygen is highest at the surface, there is still far less oxygen in the water than is found in the air. Well-oxygenated surface water may only contain around 8 mg O2/l, while the air contains 210 mg O2/l. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.  

Our Test 3. Question.No.2.

Consider the following w.r.t. Dark Oxygen. 1. It comes out of Polymetallic nodules. 2. It is produced in the ClarionClipperton Zone.  (a) Only statement 1 is true.   (b) Only statement 2 are true.  (c) Both the statements are true.  (d) None of the statement is true.

Read with Explanation

he ocean plays a vital and often underappreciated role in sustaining life on Earth, especially when it comes to oxygen production. While forests like the Amazon are famously known as the "lungs of the planet," it's actually marine ecosystems that produce about 50% to 70% of the Earth's oxygen.

Our Test 24. Question.No.30.

Which among the following statements is/are correct? 1. Slime molds are saprophytic. 2. Mycoplasma lack a cell wall. 3. Cyanobacteria do not form blooms in polluted water bodies as they are prokaryotes lacking membrane bound organelles. (a) 3 only  (b) 1 and 2 only  (c) 2 and 3 only  (d) 1, 2 and 3

Read with Explanation

A significant portion of the plankton found in the oceans and seas are cyanobacteria. They also serve as food for fish and produce a major fraction of the oxygen in the atmosphere. (II STATEMENT)

Our Test 14. Question.No.9.

Consider the following statements w.r.t. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD): 1. Nitrates and phosphates in a body of water can contribute to high BOD levels. 2. The dissolved oxygen levels are higher in the summer and during daylight hours. 3. BOD for drinking water should be less than 5 ppm. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only  (d) 1, 2 and 3

When BOD levels are high, dissolved oxygen (DO) levels decrease because the oxygen that is available in the water is being consumed by the bacteria. Since less dissolved oxygen is available in the water, fish and other aquatic organisms may not survive. (III STATEMENT)

33.

With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs: 

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All the four 

Ans: (b) 

Exp: 

1. Asmaka was a Mahajanapada located in the Deccan region, and the Godavari River flowed through this area. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. 
2. Kamboja was located in the north-western part of the Indian subcontinent, around present-day Afghanistan and Tajikistan. The Vipas (Beas) River flows in the Punjab region, not in Kamboja. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched. 
3. Avanti was a Mahajanapada located in western Madhya Pradesh, with its capital at Ujjain. The river associated with Avanti is the Chambal, not the Mahanadi (which flows in Odisha and Chhattisgarh). Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched. 
4. Kosala was a Mahajanapada located in the region of present-day eastern Uttar Pradesh, with its capital at Shravasti. The Sarayu River flowed through it. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched. 

Hence, option (b) is correct. 

Our Test 30. Question.No.59. [Full Mock 5]

How many of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti

2. Gandhara

3. Kosala

4. Magadha 

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Explanation

Avanti: This was an ancient Indian kingdom located in the western part of the present-day Madhya Pradesh state. It was not directly related to the life of Buddha as it rose to prominence a bit later than the period of the Buddha's life.

Gandhara: This was an ancient kingdom located in what is now the northern part of Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan. Gandhara became a significant center of Buddhism centuries later, especially under the Kushan Empire, but it was not directly associated with the historical events of the Buddha's life.

Kosala: This was indeed one of the major kingdoms during the life of the Buddha and is often mentioned in Buddhist texts. The Buddha had many interactions with the people and the royalty of Kosala. Notably, the capital of Kosala, Savatthi (Sravasti), was where the Buddha spent many rainy seasons teaching and where he performed many of his teachings and miracles. Magadha: This was the kingdom in which the Buddha gained enlightenment under the Bodhi tree in Bodh Gaya. Magadha was one of the four main monarchies that existed during the time of the Buddha and became a great empire under rulers such as Bimbisara and Ajatasatru, who were contemporaries of the Buddha. The Magadhan city of Rajgir (Rajagaha) was another place where the Buddha spent several rainy seasons teaching.

Our Test 30. Question.No.11. [Full Mock 5]

Read the Explanation Given

Vipas - Beas

34.

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:   

       I.          List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule 

     II.          Extent of the executive power of a State 

  III.          Conditions of the Governor’s office 

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before the Bill is presented to the President for assent? 

(a) I and II only 

(b) II and III only 

(c) I and III only 

(d) I, II and III 

Answer: (a)   

Explanation: 

• As per Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India, if any bill seeks to make changes to certain specific provisions related to the federal structure of the Indian polity, it is required to be passed by a special majority of the Parliament and ratified by not less than one-half of the state legislatures before receiving the assent of the President. 
• These include: 
• Article 162 includes the extent of the executive power of a State.   
• Article 54, Article 55, Article 73, Article 162 or Article 241 
• Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, or Chapter I of Part XI 
• Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule 
• The representation of States in Parliament 
• The provisions of Article 368 itself. 
• Conditions of the Governor’s office are mentioned under Article 158 of the Constitution under Chapter II of Part VI which is not explicitly included in the above list. 

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Our Test 4. Question.No.38.

Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the Constitution: 1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses. 2. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368. 3. To amend 7th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification of more than half of the State legislatures is essential. 4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in the House of the People" Which of these are correct? (a) 1 and 2  (b) 1 and 3  (c) 2 and 3  (d) 1, 2 and 3

Our Test 4. Question.No.60.

Which among the following statements regarding amendment of the federal principle of the Constitution is incorrect?. (a) There is no time limit within which the states should ratify it. (b) The states can ratify it by a simple majority. (c) It should be introduced with the prior permission of the President. (d) It requires ratification by half of the state legislatures.

Read with Explanation

35.

Consider the following pairs:   

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None 

Answer: (c)   

Explanation: 

• Article 50 under the Part IV, Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services of the State. Hence, pair I is correctly matched. 
• Article 51A(f) under the Part IVA, Fundamental Duties obligates every citizen to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. Hence, pair II is correctly matched. 
• Article 24 under Part III, Fundamental Rights prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or other hazardous employment. Hence, pair III is correctly matched. 

Hence, option (c) is correct. 

Our Test 4. Question.No.39.

Identify the incorrect pair

(a) Article 48A - Protection of monuments.  

(b) Article 42 - maternity relief.

(c) Article 43A - Participation of workers in management of industries.

(d) Article 50 - Separation of judiciary from executive.

Our Test 4. Question.No.95.

Which of the following are the Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution of India? 1. To follow the principles of morality. 2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India. 3. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. 4. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4  (b) 1 and 4  (c) 1, 2 and 3  (d) 2, 3 and 4

Our Test 3. Question.No.33.

Which of the following Fundamental rights has been expressed in absolute terms?        (a) Right to freedom of religion  (b) Right against exploitation in the form of forced labour  (c) Prohibition of employment of children in hazardous works  (d)  All of the above

36.

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: 

       I.          An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.  

     II.          An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

  III.          An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) I and II only  

(b) II and III only  

(c) I and III only 

(d) I, II and III 

Answer: (c)  

Explanation: 

• Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. The President can issue an ordinance only when either one or both Houses of Parliament are not in session, as legislation requires the approval of both Houses. 
• These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament. Hence, the President can issue an ordinance to amend or repeal any existing Central or State Act. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• An ordinance, like any other legislation, can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date. Example:The Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Ordinance, 2016 was promulgated on January 7, 2016, to amend the Enemy Property Act, 1968. The 2016 ordinance was later replaced by the Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2017, which retained the retrospective elements.   Hence, statement III is correct. 
• However, an ordinance, just like any ordinary Act of Parliament, is bound by constitutional limitations and cannot violate or take away Fundamental Rights guaranteed under the Constitution. Hence, statement II is NOT correct. 
• Moreover, ordinances are specifically covered under the definition of law under Article 13. 

Hence, option (c) is correct. 

Our Test 3. Question.No.30.

The state shall not make law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights. Which one of the following shall not be construed as law for this  purpose?.   (a)  Rule   (b)  Ordinance (c)  Constitutional Amendment (d)  Bye-law

Our Test 6. Question.No.71.

1. It is not possible for the ordinances to be issued by Parliament.  2. An ordinance reduces parliamentary oversight. 3. An ordinance is subject to the same constitutional limitations as an Act of Parliament and cannot violate any fundamental rights or other provisions of the Constitution. Which of the above statements is/are true regarding Ordinances?  (a) 1 only  (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Read with Explanation

37.

Consider the following statements: 

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.  

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.  

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I  

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I  

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I  

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct 

Answer: (a)  

Explanation 

• The circular economy minimizes GHG emissions by reducing reliance on energy-intensive extraction and production of virgin materials.  
• For example, reusing materials lowers emissions from manufacturing by 20-90% compared to using virgin resources. 
• Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• A core principle of the circular economy is to eliminate waste and pollution by keeping materials in use through reuse, repair, and recycling. This reduces demand for virgin raw materials like minerals, metals, and fossil fuels. 
• Hence, statement 2 is correct.  
• The circular economy designs out waste by prioritizing durability, repairability, and recyclability.  
• For example, refurbishing products instead of discarding them prevents material loss. 
• By closing material loops, waste generation is minimized at every stage of production. 
• Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

Hence, option (a) is correct.  

Our Test 5. Question.No.50.

1. It promotes ‘Circular economy’. 

2. It intends to blend ethanol with petrol to achieve carbon neutrality.

3. It prioritizes regenerative bioeconomy model of green growth.

How many of the above statements is/are correct regarding the BioE3 Policy? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three  (d) None

Explanation

Our present era is an opportune time to invest in the industrialization of biology to promote sustainable and circular practices to address some of the critical societal issues-such as climate change mitigation, food security and human health. It is important to build a resilient biomanufacturing ecosystem in our nation to accelerate cutting-edge innovations for developing bio-based products.

Our Test 12. Question.No.27.

Explanation Reads

From waste to wealth: Unlocking the potential of the high-value circular economy  

38.

Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'? 

(a) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker  

(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar  

(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav  

(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar  

Answer: (a)  

Explanation:  

• The Self-Respect Movement was founded in 1925 in Tamil Nadu by Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, also known as Periyar. He was a Balija Naidu by caste and launched the movement to challenge Brahminical dominance, religious orthodoxy, and caste-based oppression. Hence, option (a) is correct.  
• The movement rejected the Brahminical religion and culture, which Periyar believed were tools of lower caste exploitation.  
• It promoted rationalism, gender equality, and self-respect among the non-Brahmin and oppressed communities.  
• Periyar also formalised marriages without Brahmin priests, symbolically challenging Brahmin supremacy.  
• His ideas were in line with a broader South Indian anti-caste sentiment, similar to those of Sri Narayana Guru in Kerala.  

This movement played a pivotal role in social reform in South India and laid the foundation for Dravidian politics in Tamil Nadu.

Our Test 5: Qn.No.47

Consider the following statements regarding Shri Narayan Guru (1845 - 1928):

1. He installed the Siva idol at Aravipuram. 2. He gave the famous slogan “One Caste, One Religion, One God for All”. 3. He provided the impetus for Vaikom agitation. (a) Only one statement is true.  (b) Only two statements are true. (c) All the statements are true. (d) All the statements are false.

https://iasgoogle.com/editorial/sree-narayana-guru

39.

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

    I.   The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. 

 II.    The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the legislature of any State or Union Territory and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. 

III.   The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. 

IV.    Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) III only 

(b) II and III 

(c) I and IV 

(d) None of the above statements is correct 

Ans: (a) 

Explanation: 

The salient features of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 are as follows: 

• Jurisdiction: Lokpal’s jurisdiction will cover all categories of public servants, including Group A, Group B, Group C, and Group D officers and employees of Government. 
• It extends to the whole of India and applies to public servants both within and outside the country. Hence, statement I is not correct. 
• Composition: The Lokpal consists of: 
• One Chairperson who must be a former Chief Justice of India, Supreme Court Judge, or an eminent person meeting specific eligibility criteria. Hence, statement II is not correct. 
• Up to 8 Members, with 50% as Judicial Members (Judges) and at least 50% from SCs, STs, OBCs, minorities, and women. 
• Judicial Members: Must be a former Supreme Court Judge or a former Chief Justice of a High Court. 
• Non-Judicial Members: A non-judicial Member must have impeccable integrity and at least 25 years of expertise in areas like anti-corruption, public administration, vigilance, finance, law, or management. 
• The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of any State or Union Territory. Disqualifications: The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age, on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.  Hence, statement III is correct. 
• Inclusion of Prime Minister: The Lokpal can investigate allegations of corruption made in a complaint against the Prime Minister. Hence, statement IV is not correct. However,there are some exceptions. 
• The Lokpal cannot inquire into allegations against the Prime Minister if: 
• The matter relates to international relations, security (external or internal), public order, atomic energy, or space, 
• Unless the full bench of the Lokpal (Chairperson and all Members) decides to take up the case and at least two-thirds of the Members approve the inquiry.  

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Our Test 6. Question.No.4.

Which of the following is/are correct w.r.t. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013?

1. It has provision to constitute a prosecution wing.

2. It has provision to constitute an inquiry wing.

3. It does not have jurisdiction over Ministers and MPs in the matter of anything said in Parliament.

4. A Lokpal investigation is not permitted if the charge against the Prime Minister involves foreign relations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Note:

Read with Explanation Given

40.

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? 

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.  

Select the correct answer using the code given below.  

(a) I and III only  
(b) I and II only  
(c) I, II and III  
(d) II and III only 

Answer: C 

Explanation:  

Continental Drift Theory:  

• It deals with the distribution of the oceans and the continents. It was first suggested by a German meteorologist, Alfred Wegener in 1912. 
• According to the theory, all the continents formed a single continental mass- Pangea and mega ocean- Panthalassa surrounded it. 
• Around 200 million years ago Pangaea started splitting and broke down into two large continental masses as Laurasia and Gondwanaland forming the northern and southern components respectively. 
• Subsequently, Laurasia and Gondwanaland continued to break into various smaller continents that exist today. 
• Evidence of continental drift theory: 
• The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit): The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other match remarkably. 
• Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans: Radiometric dating methods have correlated the rock formation in different continents. The ancient rocks belts on the coast of Brazil match with those found in Western Africa.Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Tillite: The glacial tillite found in Gondwana system of sediments has its resemblance to six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Counterparts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia besides India. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 
• Placer Deposits: The placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast do not have source rock in the region. The gold deposits of Ghana have been derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• Distribution of Fossils: identical species of plants and animals adapted to living on land or in freshwater are found on either side of the marine barriers. For example remains of Mesosaurus, a freshwater crocodile-like reptile that lived during the early Permian (between 286 and 258 million years ago), are found solely in Southern Africa and Eastern South America. 
• Thus, All the three statements are correct.

Hence, option C is correct. 

Our Test 7. Question.No.57.

1. Stratigraphic successions

2. Strong oceanic crust

3. Seafloor Spreading

4. Igneous magmatic provinces

How many of the above support the continental drift theory?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Note:

Critics disagreed to the thought of Wegener that continents were floating over the denser oceanic crust. They had observed that sliding of continents through oceanic crust would deform them and there was lack of existence of a force strong enough to make continents move over oceanic crust. In fact, oceanic crust is so strong and would not allow the continents to move over it.

Our Test 7. Question.No.73.

Read Explanation – Evidences in support of Continental Drift Theory.

41.

Consider the following statements:  

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis.

Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejectionsbombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.  

Statement III : As the Earth'spolar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I  

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I  

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I  

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct 

Ans: b 

Explanation: 

• Scientific studies, including those conducted by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory, confirm that a shift is occurring in Earth’s axis of rotation, a phenomenon known as “polar wander” or “true polar drift”.  
• Over the past century, the position of the Earth’s rotational pole has changed by several meters, and this movement has accelerated in recent decades. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• The primary driver of this shift is mass redistribution on the Earth’s surface, particularly due to climate-induced ice melt and groundwater depletion. 
• It is true that solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) bombard Earth’s upper atmosphere with large amounts of energy, impacting communication systems, GPS accuracy, and power grids by disturbing the magnetosphere. Hence, statement II is correct. 
• However, these electromagnetic disturbances do not affect Earth’s physical rotation or axial position, and hence do not explain the axial shift mentioned in Statement I. 
• When polar ice melts, particularly in Greenland and Antarctica, the resulting water redistributes itself across the planet, largely moving toward the equator due to gravitational balancing and Earth’s rotation.  
• This redistribution of mass alters the moment of inertia of the planet, causing a wobble or drift in Earth’s rotational axis. Hence, statement III is correct. 

Therefore, while both Statements II and III are factually accurate, only Statement III has an explained relationship with Statement I.  

Hence, the correct option is (b). 

Our Test 7. Question.No.74.

As the earth’s ice sheets melt  

1. its oblateness increases

2. the region around the equator elongates slightly

3. its moment of inertia increases

4. its rotation rate gets smaller

How many of the statements given above are correct?.  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All four

(d) Only three

Our Test 5. Question.No.93.

1. solar wind  

2.coronal mass ejections  

3.solar flares

How many of the above is/are the main components of space weather?.

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three 

(d) None

42.

The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?  

       I.     Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. 

     II.     The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.  

Select the correct answer using the code given below.   

(a) I only   

(b) II only   

(c) Both I and II   

(d) Neither I nor II  

Ans: (c)   

Explanation:  

• The World Bank’s warning specifically addresses wet-bulb temperatures exceeding 35°C, which pertains to lethal heat stress caused by a combination of high temperature and humidity. So, statement I is correct.  
• At a wet-bulb temperature of 35°C, the human body (and animals) cannot cool itself through sweating, leading to heatstroke, organ failure, and death within hours. This is the core implication of the World Bank’s warning. So, statement II is correct.  

Hence, option (c) is correct.  

Our Test 8. Question.No.88.

1. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion.  

2. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is abnormal throughout the year.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

The 35°C threshold was proposed by scientists Steven C. Sherwood and Matthew Huber in 2010. They suggested that exposure beyond this limit for extended periods could induce heat stroke within six hours. However, recent studies indicate that this threshold may be an overestimation.

43.

The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was  

(a) A water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley  

(b) A large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes  

(c) A larger earthen pot driven by bullocks  

(d) A large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand  

Ans: (b)  

Exp:  

Construction of water devices in arid zones was deemed as a meritorious act. As regards the technical devices used to raise water from wells there is a lot of evidence available.  

• Desinamamala refers to such terms as agatti, unkaddi and dhenka which mean a contrivance for drawing water in which a horizontal beam with a bucket hung on the one end functioning as a see saw on a vertical post.  
• Inscriptions of southern Rajasthan especially from the regions of Jodhpur, Udaipur, Banswara, Sanchor and Sirohi repeatedly refer to irrigation with the help of arahatta or araghatta and dhimada or dhiku.  
• The ghatiyantra as an irrigational device is therefore often held as a potgarland.  
• The latter feature which became visible from the fourteenth century onwards, represented the typical Persian wheel or the saqia. The prevalence of araghatta as a hydraulic machine is best demonstrated by an eleventh century panel from Mandsor (Pali district, Rajasthan) (Satpathy, not dated). 
• The technical nature of araghatta, generally translated as a Persian wheel, is a matter of controversy. The essential part of the araghatta was the ghatiyantra or the device with pitchers, usually mounted on the wheel, but not attached to its rim.  
• The Upamitibhavaprapanchakatha of Siddharshi (CE 906) presents the most elaborate account of the device. The araghatta, according to the text, seems to have drawn water from a reservoir which in turn received its water from an irrigation well. The text highlights the spokes (arakas) of the wheel which was a revolving apparatus though it does not refer to any gearing mechanism enabling the conversion of the horizontal rotary motion into a vertical rotary motion.  

Hence, option (b) is correct.  

Our Test 10 Question.No.35.

Araghatta

• Araghatta/Persian Wheel In Sanskrit, the word Araghatta has been used in ancient texts to describe the Persian Wheel.
• The ‘ara-ghatta’ comes from the combination of the words ‘ara’ meaning spoke and ‘ghatta’ meaning pot. There is evidence to argue that this system of lifting water from open wells was probably invented in India of the past.
• It finds mention in the Panchatantra (3rd Century BCE) and the Rajatarangini (12th century CE) as the ‘cakka-vattakka’ or the ‘ghati yantra’.
• The Araghattikka or arahattiyanara describes the person or animal working the Araghatta and this description was extensively used in the twelfth century. Usually, men, bullocks, elephants or camels did the job of moving laterally to lift water by this system of Araghatta.
• The Persian wheel is a mechanical water lifting device operated usually by draught animals like bullocks, buffaloes, or camels.
• It is used to lift water from water sources typically open wells It uses the system of gearing to convert the circular motion of the animal into the vertical motion of the wheel on spokes.
• This device made its entry into India with the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate. Baburnama gives a pictorial representation and a clear description of the Persian Wheel in use in the Punjab province.

44.

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:  

1. It is an omnivorous crustacean. 
2. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. 
3. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I only  

(b) I and III  

(c) II only 

(d) II and III 

Ans: d 

Explanation: 

• The Peacock tarantula is an arachnid (a spider), not a crustacean. It is also not omnivorous; it is a predator that primarily feeds on insects and other small invertebrates Hence, Statement I is incorrect. 
• It is a critically endangered species of spider native to India.  
• It is endemic to a small patch of forest in Andhra Pradesh, India, particularly near the town of Gooty, in the Eastern Ghats.  Hence, statement II is correct. 
• As the species is arboreal, meaning it lives in trees. In its natural habitat, it resides in tree holes and crevices, spinning silken retreats and avoiding the ground unless disturbed.  
• This arboreal nature is typical of many tarantulas in the genus Poecilotheria. Hence, statement III is correct. 

Hence, option (d) is correct. 

Our Test 10. Question.No.21.

1. North American cicadas have life cycles that last for prime numbers of years.

2. They belong to Phylum Arthropoda.

Which of the following statements is/are correct w.r.t. Cicadas?. 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

45.

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:  

1. Cobalt 
2. Graphite 
3. Lithium  
4. Nickel 

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) Only three  

(d) All the four

Answer: (c)

Explanation: 

Graphite is anode.

An electric battery consists of one or more electrochemical cells, which comprise two electrodes - an anode and a cathode - and an electrolyte.  

• Lithium-ion battery cathodes commonly utilize combinations of cobalt, lithium, nickel, and other metals. NMC (Nickel Manganese Cobalt) and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminum) are popular cathode materials.
• Graphite is the most common material used for the anode (the negative electrode) in lithium-ion batteries, not the cathode.
• When a battery is used to supply electric power, the anode provides electrons, which will, when connected by a circuit to an external device, fwill low and deliver energy. 

There are two classifications of batteries.  

§  Primary batteries are disposable, for single use; secondary batteries can be recharged and reused.  

Secondary batteries come in a number of varieties, such as the lead-acid battery found in automobiles, NiCd (Nickel Cadmium), NiMH (Nickel Metal Hydride) and Li-ion (Lithium ion). Nickel is an essential component for the cathodes of many secondary battery designs, including Li-ion.

Our Test 23. Question.No.33.

An alkali metal that is often used in electric batteries as the cathode (in an oxide form). It is prized for this particular application because of its ions’ ability to move between the layers of graphite, which make up the anode. Which is the alkali metal referred here?.

(a) Caesium  

(b) Lithium  

(c) Rubidium  

(d) Francium

46.

Consider the following statements:  

     I.    Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/ capita.  

   II.    In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region.  

 III.    Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of СО₂ emissions in India.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I and III only  

(b) II only 

(c) II and III only  

(d) I, II and III 

Ans: (c) 

Explanation: 

• According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), India’s per capita CO₂ emissions stood at approximately 2 tonnes in 2023, which is significantly higher than 0.5 tonnes, although still well below the global average of around 4.6 tonnes per capita. Hence statement I is incorrect. 
• India is the second-largest emitter of CO₂ from fuel combustion in the Asia-Pacific region, behind China. The country's rapid economic growth, rising energy demand, and continued reliance on fossil fuels particularly coal—have contributed to this status. This has been corroborated by the IEA and Global Carbon Atlas data. Hence, statement II is correct. 
• The electricity and heat production sector is the largest contributor to CO₂ emissions in India. As per IEA’s emissions data, more than 50% of India’s energy-related CO₂ emissions in recent years have come from coal-based power generation, which remains the dominant source of electricity in the country. Hence, statement III is correct. 

Hence, option (c) is correct. 

Our Test 10. Question.No.60.

Which of the following is known as “Climate Finance COP”? (a) COP 27 (b) COP 28  (c) COP 25 (d) COP 29 

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/november-26-2024-current-affairs  https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/cop29-what-are-the-keyissues-at-the-un-climate-summit-in-baku/article68840139.ece

47.

1. Consider the following statements :  

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'.  

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize the health sector.  

Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I  

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I  

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I  

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Ans: c 

Explanation:

• At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28) held in Dubai in 2023, India chose not to sign the COP28 UAE Declaration on Climate and Health.  
• The declaration was endorsed by over 140 countries and aimed to highlight the link between climate change and public health, urging nations to build climate-resilient and low-carbon health systems. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• The Declaration on Climate and Health at COP28 is a non-binding declaration. It does not impose legal obligations or make it mandatory to decarbonize the health sector for countries that sign it.  Hence, statement II is incorrect. 
• Rather, it encourages voluntary action by governments to improve the sustainability and resilience of their healthcare systems in the face of climate change.  
• India has cited practical limitations in the short-term feasibility of reducing greenhouse gas emissions from cooling applications in the health sector as the primary reason for not signing the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health.  
• India expressed concern that an immediate push for decarbonization, particularly in essential services like cooling in hospitals and health facilities, may compromise the resilience and functionality of its healthcare system, especially in remote and underserved areas where reliable cooling is vital. Hence, statement III is correct. 

Hence, option (c) is correct. 

Our Test 10. Question.No.60.

Which of the following is known as “Climate Finance COP”? (a) COP 27 (b) COP 28  (c) COP 25 (d) COP 29 

https://iasgoogle.com/current_affair/november-26-2024-current-affairs  https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/cop29-what-are-the-keyissues-at-the-un-climate-summit-in-baku/article68840139.ece

48.

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident? 

(a) C. R. Das  

(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant  

(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami  

(d) M. A. Jinnah  

Answer: (b) 

Explanation:  

• Chauri Chaura, located in Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh), became famous due to the incident in 1922 during the freedom movement.  
• In 1923, Mahamana Madan Mohan Malaviya, a prominent lawyer and freedom fighter, came forward to provide legal defence to the people arrested and sentenced to death after the incident.  
• He argued continuously for four days in court, passionately defending the accused. Because of his efforts, he was able to convince the judge to review and reduce the death sentences, helping many innocent persons. 

Hence, option (b) is correct. 

Our Test 11. Question.No.21.

1. He is remembered for his role in ending the Indian indenture system, especially in the Caribbean. 2. He set up the Ganga Mahasabha in 1905. Who is referred here?.  (a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (c) Madan Mohan Malaviya (d) Keshab Chadra Sen 

 https://iasgoogle.com/editorial/pt-madan-mohan-malaviya

49.

"Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of 

(a) the Champaran Satyagraha  

(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi  

(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London  

(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement  

Answer: (b)  

Explanation:    

• Mahatma Gandhi made the statement "Sedition has become my religion" during the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930, specifically at Dandi after breaking the salt law on April 6, 1930.   
• On April 6, after picking up a handful of salt and breaking the British-imposed salt law, Gandhi declared:  
• "The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great country. I regard this rule as a curse. I am out to destroy this system of Government. … Sedition has become my religion. Ours is a non-violent battle. We are not to kill anybody but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out” Hence, option (b) is correct.  
• Gandhi, along with 78 followers, began the historic Dandi March from Sabarmati Ashram on March 12, 1930, covering nearly 375 kilometers to reach Dandi on the Gujarat coast.   
• This march was widely reported, inspiring mass resignations among village officials and widespread public participation.  

Our Test 11. Question.No.57

See Gandhi - Ambedkar Debate Table

50.

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:  

    I.   He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. 

  II.   He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I only  

(b) II only  

(c) Both 1 and II  

(d) Neither I nor II 

Ans: (c)  

Exp:  

o   The impact of modern Western culture soon gave birth to a new awakening in India. Western conquest exposed the weakness and decay of Indian society, Thoughtful Indians began to look for the defects of their society and for ways and means of removing them. While a large number of Indians refused to come to terms with the West and still put their faith in traditional Indian ideas and institutions, others gradually came to hold that modern Western thought provided the key to the regeneration of their society.  

o   The central figure in this awakening was Rammohun Roy, who is rightly regarded as the first great leader of modern India. Rammohun Roy was moved by deep love for his people and country and worked hard all his life for their social, religious, intellectual, and political regeneration. He was pained by the stagnation and corruption of contemporary Indian society which was at that time dominated by caste and convention.  

§  Rammohan Roy possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophic systems of the East; but, at the same time, he believed that Western culture alone would help regenerate Indian society. Hence, statement 1 is correct.  

§  In particular, he wanted his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women. He also wanted the introduction of modern capıtalism and industry in the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.  

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Our Test 11. Question.No.71 & 76.

Consider the following statements

Consider the following statements: 

1. After Rammohan's death in 1833 Devendranath Tagore became the leader of the Brahmo Samaj. 

2. Devendranath tried to popularise the ideas of Rammohan by founding the Tattvabodhini Sabha, which became a platform for the expression of progressive public opinions and religious views. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) Only 1
 

(b) Only 2
 

(c) Both 1 and 2
 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Tuhafat-ul-Muhawiddin was published by

(a) Mahadev Govind Ranade

(b) Keshab Chandra Sen

(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(d) Pandit Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

51.

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the Pradeshika', Rajuka' and Yukta' were important officers at the  

(a) village-level administration  

(b) district-level administration 

(c) provincial administration  

(d) level of the central administration  

Ans: (b) 

Exp: 

• Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the Pradeshika, Rajuka, and Yukta were important officers at the district level.  
• Rock edict 3 refers to these officers going on tours every five years in order to instruct people in dhamma and for other purposes. 
• The term yukta occurs in the Arthashastra as a general term for officers,  
• Bongard-Levin suggests that the rajukas of the inscriptions can be identified with the agronomoi of Megasthenes, who seem to have been connected with the measurement of land for purposes of revenue assessment.  
• The term rajuka may come from rajju, meaning rope, and the reference may be to the measurement of land using ropes.  
• Though land measurement may have been their main or original duty, in Ashoka’s time, the rajukas seem to have been high-ranking officers who were also associated with public welfare measures.  

Hence, option (b) is correct. 

Our Test 13. Question.No.57.

52.

The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of 

(a) carnelian  

(b) clay  

(c) bronze  

(d) gold  

Answer: (c)  

Explanation:   

• The ‘Dancing Girl’ is one of the most iconic artefacts from the Indus Valley Civilization, discovered at Mohenjo-daro.   
• This bronze figurine, approximately 10.8 cm (around four inches) in height, dates back to 2500 BCE, making it possibly the earliest known bronze sculpture in the Indian subcontinent. Hence, option (c) is correct.  

The figure is notable for its simplified tubular limbs and torso, suggesting an early understanding of human form in art. It depicts a young girl with long hair tied in a bun, wearing numerous bangles on her left arm, a bracelet and an amulet or bangle on the right arm, and a cowry shell necklace around her neck. Her right hand rests on her hip, while her left hand is posed in a classical Indian dance gesture, reflecting a sense of movement and cultural tradition.  

Our Test 13. Question.No.62.

Which other Harappan site has the same meaning as Mohenjodaro?. (a) Loteshwar (b) Kalibangan  (c) Chanhudaro (d) Lothal

Mohenjo–daro in present Pakistan - bronze dancing girl, the

sculpture of bearded priest, the great bath, the great granary.

Read with explanation

53.

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:  

1. They are man-made proteins.  
2. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.  
3. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) I and II only  

(b) II and III only  

(c) I and III only  

(d) I, II and III  

Answer: (d)

Explanation: 

• Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-made proteins (man-made protein) that mimic the immune system's ability to fight off harmful invaders. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Their immunological activities are based on binding to a specific ligand or antigen and may also depend on other effector functions. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• Encompassing a wide range of clinical indications, mAbs represent a large class of therapeutic biological products that continue to transform modern medicine.  
• Monoclonal antibodies have been explored as a treatment option for viral infections, including the Nipah virus. For instance, the monoclonal antibody m102.4 has shown promise in neutralizing the Nipah virus. Hence, statement 3 is correct. 

Hence, option (d) is correct.  

Our Test 14. Question.No.45.

1. vaccine antigens 2. insulin 3. monoclonal antibodies

Which of these is/are Recombinant proteins?.

(a) 2 only              

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only     

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Our Test 28. Question.No.1.

(1) Biosimilars are copies of generic drugs.

(2) Natural immunity results after acquiring certain diseases like measles.

(3) T cells produce antibodies.

(4) Passive immunity involves the use of monoclonal antibodies.

How many of these statement(s) is/are true?

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) Only three  

(d) All the four

Our Test 1. Question.No.93.

Donanemab seen in news is a/an

(a) Contraceptive pill  

(b) Persistent Organic Pollutant 

(c) Antihelminthic drug

(d) Monoclonal antibody

54.

Consider the following:  

1. Cigarette butts  
2. Eyeglass lenses  
3. Car tyres  

How many of them contain plastic? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three  

(d) None 

Answer: (c)

Explanation: 

• Cigarette Butts: They are made of cellulose acetate, a man-made plastic material, and contain hundreds of toxic chemicals. While cigarette filters, or the plastic part of butts, can take up to 10 years to completely degrade, the chemicals they release can remain in the environment for many more years beyond the life of the cigarette butt itself. 
• Eyeglass Lenses: The process of polishing eyeglass lenses generates a substantial amount of microplastics, which are released into wastewater. This indicates that the lenses themselves are made of plastic materials. 
• Car Tyres: Tire wear is estimated to be one of the largest sources of microplastics entering the aquatic environment.  

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Our Test 140. Question.No.31.

The types of plastic that are considered as safer options are 1. Polyethylene Terephthalate 2. High-Density Polyethylene 3. Polypropylene (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1 and 2 only

Read with Explantion

7 Types of Plastic with Examples given

55.

Consider the following fruits: 

       I.          Papaya 

     II.          Pineapple 

  III.          Guava  

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three  

(d) None  

Answer: (c)  

Explanation:  

• The Portuguese were the earliest Europeans to arrive in India and played a crucial role in introducing several American crops and fruits during the 16th and 17th centuries. Among these, pineapple, papaya, and guava—all native to the Americas—were introduced to India by the Portuguese.  
• Pineapple was brought from Brazil and is mentioned in the Ain-i-Akbari (1590s), showing it was cultivated in India by then. It spread quickly and was cultivated in Mughal imperial orchards and Portuguese settlements.  
• Papaya arrived via the Philippines and Malacca, becoming common in Portuguese territories like Daman by the early 1600s. It was well-liked and referred to as “Jesuit melon.”  
• Guava was introduced slightly later than pineapple and papaya. Though Abul Fazl mentions amrud in his writings, it likely referred to pears. The first clear mention of guava in India is by English physician John Fryer in 1673 near Madras, indicating its introduction by the Portuguese.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Our Test 17. Question.No.30.

How many seats were given

Our Test 16. Question.No.69.

Tobacco cultivation was introduced in the deccan by the Portuguese during the 16^th century. Tobacco smoking reached the Mughal court because of which one of the following?  (a) The Portuguese missionaries introduced it into the Mughal court.  (b) The Mughal ambassador to Bijapur, Mirza Asad Beg introduced it to Akbar.  (c) The soldiers of the Deccan spread this among the Mughal nobility.  (d) The farmers who took to tobacco cultivation introduced this to the Mughal court.

56.

Consider the following pairs:

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched? 

(a) Only one 
(b) Only two 
(c) All the three 
(d) None 

Answer: (d)  

Hence, option (d) is correct.  

Our Test 18. Question.No.45.

1. Sardinia (Italy)

Our Test 8. Question.No.62.

• The Balearic Islands is a province of Spain that lies in the western

part of the Mediterranean Sea.

• Its capital is Palma de Mallorca.

57.

With reference to 'Direct Air Capture' (DAC), which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. 
2. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. 
3. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.  

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) I and II only  

(b) III only  

(c) I, II and III  

(d) None of the above statements is correct 

Ans: (c) 

Explanation: 

• Direct Air Capture (DAC) technology removes carbon dioxide (CO₂) directly from the ambient air. The captured CO₂ can then be permanently stored underground in geological formations, effectively removing it from the atmosphere and achieving carbon sequestration. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• This process is recognized as a negative emissions technology and is considered important for meeting global climate targets. 
• Direct Air Capture' (DAC), can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. Captured CO₂ can be converted into ethylene or methanol, which are building blocks for producing polyethylene and other plastics. 
• CO₂ captured through Direct Air Capture (DAC) can be used to produce dry ice, which has valuable applications in food processing and preservation. Hence, statement II is correct. 
• One of the most promising uses of DAC is in the aviation sector, where captured atmospheric CO₂ can be combined with green hydrogen to create synthetic fuels, often referred to as e-fuels or power-to-liquid fuels. Hence, statement III is correct. 
• These low-carbon fuels can significantly reduce the carbon footprint of air travel, a sector where decarbonization is otherwise difficult. Several pilot projects are already underway globally, including in the U.S. and Europe, demonstrating this potential. 

Hence, statements I, II and III are correct. 

Our Test 18. Question.No.96.

Which reference to 'NET-ZERO' GOAL FOR 2050, which of the following statements is/are correct?  

1. It means that a country will bring down its emissions to zero by 2050. 2. It means that a country's emissions will be compensated by absorption and removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere.  

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

58.

Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement: 

    I.    The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. 

  II.    It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) I only 

(b) II only 

(c) Both I and II 

(d) Neither I nor II 

Ans: C 

Exp: 

• The fundamental change in the policy and methods of the Congress was reflected in Article 1 of the Constitution adopted in 1921 : “The object of the Indian National Congress is the attainment of Swarajya by the people of India by all legitimate and peaceful means.” In other words, self government within the British Empire was no longer to be attained solely through ‘constitutional’ means; unconstitutional means, provided they were ‘legitimate and peaceful’, might also be employed. This change in the fundamental character of the Congress came in the very year (1921) of the inauguration of the Montford Reforms and boded ill for its successful working. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages. It should begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded, and a boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods. Then, in case the government used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched. Through the summer of 1920 Mahatma Gandhi and Shaukat Ali toured extensively, mobilising popular support for the movement. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

Hence, option (c) is correct. 

Our Test 19. Question.No.86.

Read Explanation on Swaraj given as below:-

Swaraj Movement 

The Swaraj Movement gained prominence during the early 1920s, particularly between 1920 and 1922, as a response to the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement and the disillusionment with constitutional reforms. The primary goal of the Swaraj Movement was to attain self-governance or complete independence from British rule. It aimed to achieve this through a combination of non-cooperation, non-violent civil disobedience, and political action. Prominent leaders of the Swaraj Movement included Mahatma Gandhi, Motilal Nehru, Chittaranjan Das, Lala Lajpat Rai, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Subhas Chandra Bose, among others. These leaders played crucial roles in shaping the movement's strategies and direction.

At the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920, the Congress formally adopted the goal of attaining Swaraj (self-rule) through legitimate and peaceful means, aligning with Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy of non-violence.

The Non-Cooperation Movement was designed to be implemented in stages. Initially, it involved boycotts of government institutions, titles, and foreign goods. Gandhi had declared that if Swaraj was not achieved within a year and the government resorted to repression, the movement would escalate to civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes.

This strategic, phased approach was central to Gandhi’s plan to pressure the British government while maintaining non-violent discipline. 

59.

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?  

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta) 

(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya) 

(c) Rajendra I (Chola) 

(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala) 

Ans: (c) 

Exp: 

• Rajendra Chola I, the son of Rajaraja Chola I, led a successful and historic naval expedition against the Srivijaya Empire in 1025 CE.  
• This campaign marked one of the most significant overseas military expeditions in Indian history.  
• The Chola navy attacked and captured several important Srivijayan ports and cities across the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, and surrounding regions. 
• It had great strategic importance in Indian ocean trade. Military conflicts continued and Cholas held their sway till Koluttunga (1070CE–1122CE). 

Hence, option (c) is correct. 

Our Test 19. Question.No.94.

(Also See Qn. No 35)

Who among the following permitted the Sailendra ruler of Sri Vijaya (Indonesia) Balaputradeva to construct a vihara at Nalanda?

(a) Amoghavarsha

(b) Mahipala

(c) Dhruva

(d) Devapala

Explanation 

• Shailendra dynasty was an Indianised dynasty that flourished in Java from about 750 AD to 850 AD. 

• The dynasty was marked by a great cultural renaissance associated with the introduction of Mahayana Buddhism, and it attained a high level of artistic expression in the many temples and monuments built under its rule.

• The Sailendra rulers were known to have had friendly relations with their contemporary Indian kings during that time. Some of these rulers were: 

1.   Balaputradeva: The Sailendra dynasty king named Balaputradeva (ruler of Suvarnadvipa) requested Devapala (Pala ruler) to grant five villages to the monastery at Nalanda.  o Chudamanivarman: He built a monastery at Nagapattinam in Tamil Nadu known as Chudamanivarman Vihara. Rajaraja, the great Chola king, made liberal grants to that monastery. 

Sri-Maravijayottungavarman: He was the son of Chudamanivarman and completed the construction of 'Chudamanivarman Vihara' under the reign of Rajaraja.  Thus, Balaputradeva, Chudamanivarman, and SriMaravijayottungavarman are the Sailendra rulers who are known to have had friendly relations with their contemporary Indian kings.

60.

Consider the following statements: 

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. 

Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. 

Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I  

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I 

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I  

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct 

Answer: (a)

Explanation: 

• Activated carbon consists of a wide range of carbonized materials that are characterized by high porosity and large surface area.  
• Because of its outstanding properties, activated carbon is utilized in several applications such as the purification of drinking water, wastewater treatment, and separation of gases and pollutants. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• Activated carbon has good potential for adsorbing heavy metals because of its greater surface area, microporous ability, and chemical complexity of its external area. Hence, statement II is correct. 
• Activated carbon is produced from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Hence, statement III is correct. 

According to Statement I, activated carbon is a good and attractive tool for removing pollutants from industrial effluents. 

• Statement II explains why it is effective: Activated carbon has a large surface area and adsorbs heavy metals well, making it ideal for pollution control. 
• Statement III explains why it is attractive: It can be easily made from waste materials, making it cost-effective and sustainable for industries. 
• Together, both statements justify Statement I — one by highlighting performance, the other by highlighting accessibility and affordability. 

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Our Test 19. Question.No.98.

With reference to PFAs, which of the following is/are methods of removing PFAS?  

1.  supercritical water oxidation

2.  plasma reactors

3.  Filtration using activated carbon

Select the correct answer using the codes given below : 

(a) 1 only  

(b) 2 and 3 only  

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

61.

Consider the following countries: 

I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia  
IV. Serbia  
V. Sweden  
VI. North Macedonia  

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?  

(a) Only three  
(b) Only four  
(c) Only five  
(d) All the six  

Answer: B 

Explanation:  

• North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO): 
• It is an intergovernmental military alliance formed in 1949. It was established with the primary goal of providing collective defence against potential aggression, particularly from the Soviet Union during the Cold War era.  
• Over the years, NATO has evolved to address a range of security challenges beyond its original mandate. 
• NATO Members: 
• The original 12 founding members of NATO were Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, the United Kingdom, and the United States. 
• NATO has expanded since its founding, with new member countries joining in multiple rounds. The alliance currently consists of 32 member countries. 
• Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia are members of NATO.  
• Austria and Serbia are not NATO members; both maintain military neutrality.  
• Sweden joined NATO in 2024.  
• Therefore, four of the listed countries are NATO members.  

Hence, option B is correct. 

Our Test 2. Question.No.40.

Read Explanation Source

NATO at 75, an enduring alliance

See Map

62.

Consider the following pairs:   

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All the three 

(d) None 

Answer: (c)  

Explanation: 

• Arunachal Pradesh’s capital is Itanagar, which is named after the Ita Fort, meaning fort of bricks, constructed in the 14th century A.D. 
• Also, the state is home to two National Parks: Namdapha National Park and Mouling National Park. Hence, pair I is correctly matched. 
• Nagaland came into existence through the Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962. Article 371A was inserted to provide special constitutional provisions for Nagaland.Hence, pair II is correctly matched. 
• The Act recognized its unique social, cultural, and administrative features, including the non-applicability of parliamentary laws on certain matters unless approved by the state legislature. 
• Tripura was a Part 'C' state post-merger with the Indian Union in 1949. Following the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, it became a centrally administered territory. Later, in 1972, Tripura became a full-fledged state. Hence, pair III is correctly matched. 

Hence, option (c) is correct. 

Our Test 20. Question.No.42.

Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, with respect to which of the  following item(s) the Acts of the Parliament of India shall not apply to the State of Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of the State of Nagaland by a resolution so decides? 1. Religious or social practices of Nagas 2. Naga customary law and procedure 3. Ownership and transfer of land and its resources 4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states Select the answer using the code given below: (a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4   (c) Only 1, 2 and 4   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Our Test 20. Question.No.94.

Which of the following states were not formerly Union Territories?  1.) Meghalaya 2.) Tripura 3.) Nagaland 4.) Himachal Pradesh 5.) Mizoram Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Our Test 3. Question.No.34.

1. easternmost tiger reserve. 2. borders Myanmar. W.r.t. Namdapha National Park (a) Both (1) and (2) are true.  (b) Both (1) and (2) are false. (c) (1) is true but (2) is false. (d) (1) is false but (2) is true.

Arunachal Pradesh

"Arunachal" comes from Sanskrit:

• "Aruna" means dawn or sun.
• "Achal" means mountain.
• So, Arunachal Pradesh translates to “Land of the Dawn-Lit Mountains”, reflecting its easternmost location in India where the sun rises first.

Historical Background

• Originally known as the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) during British rule.
• Became a Union Territory in 1972, and a full-fledged state on 20 February 1987.
• Mentioned in ancient Hindu texts like the Kalika Purana, Mahabharata, and Ramayana, indicating its long-standing cultural significance.

Geographic & Cultural Highlights

• Borders Bhutan, China (Tibet), and Myanmar, making it geopolitically significant.
• Known for its rich tribal heritage, biodiversity, and stunning landscapes.
• Nicknamed “Land of the Rising Sun” due to its location and name origin.

The capital city Itanagar is named after the Ita Fort, a historical fort built in the 14th–15th century. “Ita” means brick in the Ahom language, so Itanagar literally means “Fort of Bricks.”

Arunachal Pradesh is home to two major National Parks:

1. Namdapha National Park – One of the richest biodiversity hotspots in India.
2. Mouling National Park – Located in the Upper Siang district, known for its rugged terrain and rich flora and fauna.

63.

Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. 

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. 

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. 

Which of the statements given above are not correct? 

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only 

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III 

Ans: (d) 

Explanation: 

• Panchayats: 
• The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.  
• Salient Features: 
• The act provides for a three-tier system of panchayati raj in every state, that is, panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels. However, a state having a population not exceeding 20 lakh may not constitute panchayats at the intermediate level. Hence, statement I is not correct. 
• No person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than 25 years of age if he has attained the age of 21 years. It means the minimum age to be eligible to be a member of a Panchayat at the intermediate levels is 21 years. Hence, statement II is not correct. 
• The governor (not Chief Minister) of a state shall, after every five years, constitute a finance commission to review the financial position of the panchayats  and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats including at the intermediate level. Hence, statement III is not correct. 

Hence, option (d) is correct. 

Our Test 20. Question.No.48.

Which of the following is/are the voluntary provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?.

I. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.

II. Devolution of functions listed in the 11th schedule of the Constitution upon Panchayats to perform.

III. Reservation of one-third of seats for women in panchayats at all three levels.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) II and III only

(d) I, II and III only

Explanation Reads

However, Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.

Article 243F of the Indian Constitution deals with….

As per Article 243-I, the Governor is required to constitute an SFC within one year from the enactment of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 and every five years thereafter.  Mandate: Their primary role is to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the state government and its local bodies i.e., Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and urban local bodies (ULBs). 

64.

Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.  

Statement II:  Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.  

Which one of the following is correct?  

(a) Both are correct and II explains I 

(b) Both are correct but II does not explain I 

(c) Only I is correct

(d) Only II is correct  

Answer: A  

Explanation: 

• They are a set of seventeen metallic elements. These include the fifteen lanthanides on the periodic table in addition to scandium and yttrium that show similar physical and chemical properties to the lanthanides.These elements are important components in over 200 products, spanning applications in consumer electronics, electric vehicles, defence systems. Hence, statement I is correct.  
• Rare earth elements such as europium and terbium are widely used in color displays of TVs and monitors because of their phosphorescent properties (they glow when exposed to radiation). Hence, statement II is correct.  

Hence, option A is the correct answer.  

Our Test 23.  Question.No.27.

1. Aluminum is obtained from carborundum.

2. Wolframite is a tungsten ore mineral.

3. Pitchblende is a major source of plutonium.

4. Monazite contains thorium.

How many of the above is/are true?.

(a) Only one  (b) Only two  (c) Only three   (d) All the four

Read with Explanation

Our Test 26.  Question.No.33.

1. It is between India and the USA.  2. Its purpose is to enhace the cyber security of Digital Public Assets. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect w.r.t TRUST Initiative?   (a) 1 only   (b) 2 only   (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Read with Explanation

65.

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

       I.     The Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. 

     II.     No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. 

  III.     Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in the legislature or its committees. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) I and II only 

(b) II and III only 

(c) I and III only 

(d) I, II and III 

Answer: (d)   

Explanation: 

• According to Article 361(1) of the Constitution, the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office, or for any act done in the exercise of those powers and duties. Hence, statement I is correct. 
• Article 361(2) states that no criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during their term of office. Additionally, no arrest or imprisonment can be made against a sitting Governor. Hence, statement II is correct. 
• Article 194(2) provides that no member of the State Legislature shall be liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given in the Legislature or its committees. This is a parliamentary privilege extended to state legislators as well. Hence, statement III is correct. 

Hence, option (d) is correct. 

Our Test 27. Question.No.62. [Full Mock 2]

1. Supreme Court determines breaches of privilege or contempt.  2. Indira Gandhi was found guilty of breach of privilege and contempt. 3. The 44^th Amendment Act, 1978, allows the press to publish accurate reports of parliamentary proceedings without prior approval. 4. In Sita Soren vs. Union of India, 2024 case, the Supreme Court established immunity for Members of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies who accepted bribes for casting votes. How many of these is/are correct?.  (a) Only one  (b) Only two  (c) Only three  (d) All the four

Our Test 4. Question.No.55.

In Indian context, the rule of equality before law is not absolute; there are certain exceptions to it.

1. A member of Parliament is answerable to court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament

2. The President or the Governor enjoy constitutional immunities

3. Foreign ambassadors and diplomats enjoy not only criminal immunities but civil immunities as well

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All of the above

66.

Consider the following statements: 

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.  
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water
Statement III:  Clay is not at all porous.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I  
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I  
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I  
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct  

Answer: C 

Explanation:  

• Chalk: Highly porous and permeable, allowing water absorption.  
• Clay: Has very fine pores, making it almost impermeable, but not completely non-porous.  
• So, only Statement II is correct and it explains Statement I.  

Hence, option C is correct. 

Our Test 28. Question.No.36.

1. Radish 2. Carrot 3. Wheat Plants that are ideal for growing in space include (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only  (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation Reads

ISRO used porous clay with slow-release fertilizer

for controlled nutrient delivery.  

Our Test 26. [Full mock 1) Question.No.59.

1. Weathering of terrestrial rock  2. Plate tectonics 3. Hydrothermal vents How many of these is/are a part of Carbon Cycle?. (a) Only one  (b) Only two  (c) All three  (d) None

Explanation Reads

Chalk’s Role in the Carbon Cycle

Our Test 11. Question.No.75.

Exaplanation Reads

Due to global warming, there would have been weathering of rocks. These dissolving rocks release lithium into surrounding water bodies and by studying the isotopes of lithium we can understand the amount of erosion. 

o Clay minerals from the bottom of the sea were used to study the lithium isotopes stored in water. 

Lithium isotopes (Li-6 and Li-7) have their relationship (ratio) to each other changed by the weathering process – Li-6 is preferentially retained in clays that form during weathering.

67.

With reference to investments, consider the following:  

1. Bonds 
2. Hedge Funds 
3. Stocks  
4. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?  

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four 

Answer: (b) 

Explanation:  

Alternative Investments Funds: These are financial assets that do not fall into the conventional categories of stocks, bonds, or cash.  

• Examples include hedge funds, venture capital, private equity, real estate, commodities. 
• Both venture capital funds and hedge funds are classified as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) under Indian regulations, specifically as per the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. 
• Hence, option (b) is correct. 
• Bonds are traditional investment instruments. They fall under fixed-income securities regulated separately. 
• Stocks are conventional equity investments. 

Our Test 3. Question.No.20.

Consider the following statements w.r.t. Offshore Funds:

1. They include mutual funds, hedge funds and private equity funds.

2. They are usually established in financial hubs like the Cayman Islands, Bermuda, or Luxembourg.

(a) Both 1 and 2 are true.

(b) Both 1 and 2 are false.

(c) 1 is true but 2 is false.

(d) 1 is false but 2 is true.

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/hindenburg-adani-sebi-chairperson-offshore-funds-9506915/

Offshore Fund

1.   An offshore fund is a type of investment fund that is based outside the investor’s country of residence.

2.   Purpose: These funds are often used to manage investments and reduce tax liability, and they might offer investment opportunities not available in the investor's home country.

3.   Location: Offshore funds are usually established in financial hubs like the Cayman Islands, Bermuda, or Luxembourg.

4.   Regulations: They often benefit from favorable regulatory environments and tax policies in their host countries.

5.   Types: Offshore funds can include mutual funds, hedge funds, private equity funds, and more.

6.   Benefits: They may offer tax advantages, asset protection, and access to a broader range of investments.

7.   Tax Efficiency: They can be structured to minimize taxes.

8.   Diversification: They allow investors to access international markets and investments.

Privacy: Some offshore funds offer greater confidentiality for investors.

Note:

Offshore funds are a type of alternative investment funds.

Our Test 27. [Full Mock 2] Question.No.34.

(i) Angel investors generally invest their own money.   (ii) They invest in small start-ups and entrepreneurs.  (iii) They provide more favourable terms and conditions as compared to other lenders.   (iv) Angel investment is regulated by RBI. How many of these is/are true w.r.t. "Angel Investors"?. (a) Only one  (b) Only two  (c) Only three  (d) All four

Angel investment can be part of an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)—specifically under Category I in India.

68.

Consider the following statements 

    I.   The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). 

  II.   In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II 

Answer: (b) 

Explanation: 

o   The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does not mandate the submission of the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). Instead, it is the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that mandates BRSR, and only for the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalization—not all listed companies. Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. 

o   The BRSR requires companies to make disclosures that are largely non-financial in nature, focusing on environmental, social, and governance (ESG) factors. Hence, Statement II is correct.  

Hence, option (b) is correct. 

Our Test 3. Question.No.6.

Read Explanation

• In 2021, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) framework, mandating that the top 1,000 listed companies in India disclose their performance on environmental, social, and governance (ESG) parameters.

This initiative aimed to enhance transparency and encourage responsible business practices, building on the earlier Business Responsibility Report (BRR) introduced in 2012.

69.

Consider the following statements: 

    I.   In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi. 

 II.    Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) I only 

(b) II only 

(c) Both I and II 

(d) Neither I nor II 

Ans: (b) 

Explanation: 

o   Gukesh Dommaraju became the youngest-ever World Chess Champion in December 2024, after defeating Ding Liren of China in the World Chess Championship match held in Singapore. Hence, statement I is not correct. 

o   Indian-origin American Abhimanyu Mishra is the youngest-ever chess Grandmaster in the world. He achieved this feat when he was 12 years, 4 months and 25 days old in the year 2021. Hence, statement II is correct. 

Hence, option (b) is correct. 

Our Test 30. [FINAL MOCK 5] Question.No.100.

With reference to the ‘World Chess Championship’, consider the following statements:  

1. The player who scores 7.5 points or more wins the Match.

2. It consists of 14 games. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (a) 1 only  (b) 2 only  (c) Both 1 and 2  (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation reads

Gukesh Dommaraju of India defeated Ding Liren of China in the 2024 World Chess Championship.

70.

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

       I.     The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

     II.     The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) Only I  
(b) Only II  
(c) Both I and II  
(d) Neither I nor II  

Answer: A 

Explanation:  

• The President of India is the constitutional head of the country. The Constitution of India, 1950 (COI) empowers the President with legislative, executive and judicial powers. Article 72 of the COI deals with the judicial power of the President also termed as pardoning power of the President. 
• The President of India’s pardoning power under Article 72 of the Constitution is not absolute and can be subjected to judicial review in specific cases. As per Epuru Sudhakar v. Andhra Pradesh, the President’s power is subject to judicial review if exercised arbitrarily. Hence, statement I is correct.  

According to Article 74 of Indian Constitution the President cannot exercise his power of pardon independent of the government. The article states,there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. Hence, statement II is not correct.  

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Our Test 5.  Question.No.68.

Read Explanation

• The President''s powers are subject to review by the judiciary. The judiciary can examine the decisions made by the President, including the President''s power to grant pardons and reduce sentences. 
• The President has limited legislative powers, confined to summoning and proroguing the sessions, issuing ordinances and giving assent to the bills, and dissolving the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Indian Parliament.
• The President''s power to grant pardons and reduce sentences is subject to the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• The President''s term in office is limited to five years, and the President can be impeached by the Parliament for violation of the Constitution.
• The President''s power to declare an emergency is subject to the approval of the Parliament.

71.

Consider the following statements:  

    I.   If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.  

 II.    There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.  

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I only  
(b) II only  
(c) Both I and II  
(d) Neither I nor II  

Answer: D  

Explanation:  

o   The anti-defection law punishes individual Members of Parliament (MPs)/MLAs for leaving one party for another. Parliament added it to the Constitution as the Tenth Schedule in 1985. Its purpose was to bring stability to governments by discouraging legislators from changing parties.

§  The Tenth Schedule - popularly known as the Anti-Defection Act - was included in the Constitution via the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 and sets the provisions for disqualification of elected members on the grounds of defection to another political party.  

§  The decision on questions as to disqualification on ground of defection are referred to the Chairman or the Speaker of such House, which is subject to ‘Judicial review’. Hence, statement I is not correct. 

§  The term ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule, which deals with anti-defection. Hence, statement II is not correct. 

Hence, option (d) is correct answer. 

Our Test 6. Question.No.14.

With reference to “Anti Defection Law”..

Read WITH Explanation

72.

Consider the following types of vehicles:  

1. Full battery electric vehicles  
2. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles  
3. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles  

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) All the three  

(d) None  

Ans: (c) 

Explanation:  

• Alternative powertrains include propulsion systems that are not based exclusively on the internal combustion engine. This may include hybrids, full battery electrics, hydrogen fuel cells, compressed air, and many other types.  
• Types of EVs: 
  • These vehicles are not as efficient as fully electric or plug-in hybrid vehicles. 
  • PHEVs are more efficient than HEVs but less efficient than BEVs. 
• Hybrid Electric Vehicle (HEV): The vehicle uses both the internal combustion (usually petrol) engine and the battery-powered motor powertrain.  
• Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicle (PHEV): Uses both an internal combustion engine and a battery charged from an external socket (they have a plug).  
• FCEVs run on hydrogen fuel cells, which produce electricity and water as the only by-products offering a clean and efficient alternative to BEVs. 
• Battery Electric Vehicle (BEV): Fully powered by electricity. These are more efficient compared to hybrid and plug-in hybrids. 
• Hybrid Electric Vehicle: 
• Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV): Electric energy is produced from chemical energy. For example, a hydrogen FCEV. 

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Our Test 6. Question.No.8.

John B. Goodenough seen in news often in relation Science and Technology related news is well known for his 

(a) studies w.r.t. Helicobacter pylori

(b) studies w.r.t. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

(c) development of lithium-ion batteries

(d) development of hydrogen fuel cell

Our Test 6. Question.No.94.

Consider the following w.r.t. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles.

1. Hydrogen fuel enters the fuel cell at the anode side.

2. The electrons travel along an external circuit creating current.

Which of the above is/are correct?.  

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2  

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Our Test 6. Question.No.29.

1. The scheme aims to promote electric buses for public transport in major cities.

2. Subsidies for the purchase of electric vehicles will be implemented by the Ministry of Renewable Energy.

3. The scheme provides no financial support for the development of EV charging infrastructure.

4. Only private electric vehicle buyers will benefit from the scheme.

How many of the above is/are correct w.r.t. PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement (PM E-Drive) Scheme?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three  

(d) All four

Our Test 25. Question.No.33.

Consider the following statements w.r.t. fuel cells:  

1. A fuel cell combines hydrogen and oxygen to generate an electric current.

2. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current.  

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?.

(a) 1 only  

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only  

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2  

73.

Consider the following statements:  

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.  

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?   

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I   

(b)Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I   

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct   

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct  

Ans: (d)   

Explanation:   

• The United States is the world's largest producer of ethanol, having produced over 15 billion gallons in 2021 and 2022. Together, the United States and Brazil produce 80% of the world's ethanol. Hence, statement I is not correct. 
• The vast majority of U.S. ethanol is produced from corn, while Brazil primarily uses sugarcane. Hence, statement II is correct. 

Hence, option (d) is correct.  

Our Test 6. Question.No.9.

Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol? (a) Jatropha  (b) Maize (c) Pongamia (d) Sunflower

Read WITH Explanation

Our Test 17. Question.No.43.

Given below are the names

74.

Consider the following water bodies: 

I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon  

Through how many of them does the equator pass?  

(a) Only one  
(b) Only two  
(c) All the three  
(d) None  

Answer: D 

Explanation:  

• Lake Tanganyika: Located in Africa, its northern tip is very close to, but does not cross, the equator.  
• Lake Tonlé Sap: Located in Cambodia, well north of the equator.  
• Thirteen nations—Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome & Principe, Gabon, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, the Maldives, Indonesia, and Kiribati—are traversed by the Equator.  
• Since the equator does not pass through Cambodia, it does not pass through Lake Tonlé Sap also. 
• Patos Lagoon: Located in southern Brazil, well south of the equator, even below the Tropic of Capricorn 
• The equator passes through none of these lakes, though Lake Tanganyika is very close. 

Hence, option D is correct. 

Our Test 7. Question.No.76.

Through which, one of the following groups of countries does the Equator pass? 

(a) Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia 

(b) Gabon, Kenya and Indonesia 

(c) Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia 

(d) Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia

Note:

Equator line passes through 13 countries which are as follows: (1) Brazil (2) Colombia (3) Democratic Republic of the Congo (4) Ecuador (5) Gabon (6) Indonesia (7) Kenya (8) Kiribati (9) Republic of the Congo (10) Sao Tome and Principe (11) Somalia (12) Uganda (13) Republic of the Congo.   

75.

Consider the following countries: 

1. Bolivia 
2. Brazil 
3. Colombia  
4. Ecuador 
5. Paraguay 
6. Venezuela 

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?  

(a) Only two  

(b) Only three  

(c) Only four  

(d) Only five

Answer: C 

Explanation:  

• Andes: 
• The Andes Mountains are the longest mountain range in the world, spanning about 7,000 kilometers (4,350 miles) along the western edge of South America.  
• These are the mountain systems of South America with an average height of 8,900 kilometres. 
• It ranges from the southern tip of South America to the continent’s northernmost coast on the Caribbean covering parts of seven South American countries- Argentina, Bolivia, Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, and Venezuela. 
• The Andes are home to some of the world’s highest peaks, active volcanoes, ancient ruins, and unique ecosystems. 

Hence, option C is correct. 

Our Test 8. Question.No.14.

Explanation Reads

Mastodons in Peruvian Andes with Map

Our Test 25. Question.No.82.

Explanation Reads

Andes in various spreads….

76.

Consider the following countries: 

1. United Kingdom 
2. Denmark 
3. New Zealand  
4. Australia 
5. Brazil 

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?  

(a) All the five  

(b) Only four  

(c) Only three  

(d) Only two  

Answer: (b)  

Explanation:  

• United Kingdom spans 9 time zones due to its numerous overseas territories like Pitcairn Islands, Bermuda, and British Indian Ocean Territory.  
• Denmark controls 5 time zones, primarily because of Greenland, which itself spans multiple zones, along with the Faroe Islands.  
• New Zealand has 5 time zones, covering its main islands, Chatham Islands, Niue, Tokelau, and the Cook Islands.  
• Australia spans 9 time zones when including its external territories like Christmas Island, Norfolk Island, and daylight saving time variations across states.  
• Brazil, however, has only 4 time zones, ranging from UTC-2 to UTC-5, including mainland and adjacent island groups.  
• Hence, only four countries—UK, Denmark, New Zealand, and Australia—have more than four time zones, while Brazil does not.  

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Our Test 9. Question.No.56.

Incase the International Date Line was a straight line, which of the following islands would have experienced a two-date problem within the same time zone? 1. Wrangel Island 2. Aleutian Islands 3. Kiribati islands. (a) 1, 2 & 3  (b) Only 3  (c) Only 1 & 2  (d) None of these

U.K. is eight time zones…Read full explanation

77.

Consider the following statements: 

1. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. 
2. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  

(a) I only  

(b) II only  

(c) Both I and II  

(d) Neither I nor II  

Answer: (a)  

Explanation:  

• This question is based on the International Date Line (IDL) and its effect on time and date differences between geographically close locations.  
• Anadyr (siberia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are relatively close across the Bering Strait. However, the International Date Line (IDL) passes between them.  
• The IDL is an imaginary line around 180° longitude where the date changes by one day when crossed.  
• Anadyr lies to the west of the IDL, while Nome is to the east. Due to this, despite their close distance, they are placed on different calendar days. Hence, statement I is correct.  
• Anadyr is ahead of Nome by about 20 hours. So when it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday. Hence, statement II is NOT correct.  

Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Our Test 9. Question.No.56.

Incase the International Date Line was a straight line, which of the following islands would have experienced a two-date problem within the same time zone? 1. Wrangel Island 2. Aleutian Islands 3. Kiribati islands. (a) 1, 2 & 3  (b) Only 3  (c) Only 1 & 2  (d) None of these

Our Test 7. Question.No.94.

Consider the following statements regarding Straits:  1. Bering Strait separates Asia from North America. 2. Malacca Strait facilitates movement from Indian Ocean to China Sea. 3. Bab-el-Mandeb strait connects the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean.  (a) Only one statement is true.  (b) Only two statements are true. (c) All the statements are true. (d) All the statements are false.

Explanation-  Bering Strait separates Asia from North America. It is located at easternmost point of Russia at 169 43' east latitude and western end (Alaska) of USA at 168  0 0 5' west latitude.

78.

Consider the following pairs :

                           Plant                              Description  

1. Cassava :                     Woody shrub 
2. Ginger :                       Herb with pseudostem 
3. Malabar spinach       Herbaceous climber 
4. Mint :                            Annual shrub 
5. Papaya :                       Woody shrub 

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?  

(a) Only two  

(b) Only three  

(c) Only four  

(d) All the five 

Ans: (b) 

79.

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? 

               I.    It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. 

             II.    It will allow more uniform and high-quality air traffic management. 

           III.    It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) I, II and III 

(b) I only 

(c) II and III only 

(d) I and II only 

Ans: (d) 

80.

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:  

1. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth  
2. Observance of strict non-violence  
3. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public  
4. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes  

How many of the above were parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme?  

(a) Only one  

(b) Only two  

(c) Only three  

(d) All the four  

Ans: (c) 

81.

Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho-Kho World Cup:

       I.    The event was held in Delhi, India. 

     II.    Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in the men category. 

   III.    Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54—36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category. 

Which of the statements above is/are correct? 

(a) I only 

(b) II and III only 

(c) I and III only 

(d) I, II and III 

Ans: (a) 

82.

With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:  

How many of the pairs are correctly matched?  

(a) Only one  
(b) Only two  
(c) All three  
(d) None  

Answer: (b)   

83.

Consider the following statements regarding constitutional provisions in India:

    I.    The Constitution of India explicitly mentions situations where the Governor of a State can act in his/her discretion. 

 II.    The President of India can, on his/her own, reserve a Bill passed by a State Legislature for consideration, even without it being forwarded by the Governor of the concerned State. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) I only 

(b) II only 

(c) Both I and II 

(d) Neither I nor II 

Answer: (a)   

84.

Consider the following activities:   

       I.          Production of crude oil 

     II.          Refining, storage, and distribution of petroleum 

  III.          Marketing and sale of petroleum products 

   IV.          Production of natural gas 

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) in India? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three 

(d) All four 

Answer: (b)   

85.

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:   

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? 

(a) Only one 

(b) Only two 

(c) All three 

(d) None 

Answer: (d)  

86.

Consider the following countries:  

1. United Arab Emirates  
2. France  
3. Germany   
4. Singapore  
5. Bangladesh  

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?   

(a) Only two   

(b) Only three   

(c) Only four   

(d) All the five  

Ans: (b)  

87.

Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:  

       I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. 

     II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.  

  III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.   

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   

(a) I only   

(b) I and II   

(b) I and III    

(d) III only  

Ans: (a)  

88.

Consider the following statements:

1. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future-ready railway system by 2028.  
2. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system developed in collaboration with Germany. 
3. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on tracks in station sections.  

Which of the above statements given above are not correct?  

(a) I and II only  
(b) II and III only  
(c) I and III only  
(d) I, II and III  

Ans: (d) 

89.

Consider the following pairs:

        1.   International Year of the Woman Farmer: 2026 

        2.   International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism: 2027 

        3.   International Year of Peace and Trust: 2025 

        4.   International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence: 2029 

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched? 

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two 

(c) Only three  

(d) All the four 

Ans: (d) 

90.

Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

1. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. 
2. Along with other countries, the US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) I only 

(b) II only 

(c) Both I and I  

(d) Neither I nor II 

Ans: (a) 

91.

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? 

1. The President of India 
2. The Prime Minister of India 
3. The Chief Justice of India 
4. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) II and IV only  

(b) I, II and III 

(c) II, III and IV    

(d) I and III only 

Ans: (c) 

92.

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. 

II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only  

(b) II only  

(c) Both I and II  

(d) Neither I nor II 

Answer: (c)  

93.

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23: 

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. 

II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. 

III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) I and II only  

(b) II and III only  

(c) I and III only  

(d) I, II and III 

Answer: (d)  

94.

Consider the following statements:  

Statement I : As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.  

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.  

Statement III : For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I  

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I  

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct 

Answer: (a)  

95.

Consider the following statements:  

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. 

II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time

III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.  

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) I and Il only. 

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III 

Answer: (a) 

96.

Consider the following statements:

Statement I : In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.  

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.  

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I  

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct Statement II is not correct but  

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct 

Answer: (d)  

97.

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:  

Ans: (b) 

98.

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in  

(a) Delhi 

(b) Gwalior 

(c) Ujjain 

(d) Lahore 

Ans: (d) 

99.

Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?  

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB) 

(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) 

(c) The New Development Bank (NDB)  

(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) 

Ans: (a)

100.

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:  

1. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.  
2. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.  
3. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.  

How many of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) Only one   

(b) Only two 

(c) All the three  

(d) None

Ans: (d)