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UPSC Prelims 2023 Question

Our Test Batch 2023 Question

‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

(b) Converting crop residues into packing material

(d) Producing bio-char from thermo- chemical conversion of biomass

TEST 13, Q No - 93

“Wolbachia” seen in news refer to

(a) Mosquitoes

(b) Bacteria

(d) Algae

TEST – 24, Q No – 47 - Another Question w.r.t. same area in a different framing.

Scientists have genetically modified mosquitoes to slow the growth of malaria-causing parasites in their guts — an advancement that can help prevent transmission of the disease to humans. consider the following statements in this regard: 1. Gene drive technology is used. 2. There is heavy risk to the environment. 3. A self-limiting gene prevents female mosquito offspring from surviving to adulthood. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Note: -

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/science-technology/genetically-modified-mosquitoes-for-controlling-vector-borne-diseases-successful-trial-gives-hope-82495

Consider the following countries

1. Bulgaria

2. Czech Republic

3. Hungary

4. Latvia

5. Lithuania

6. Romania

How many of the above countries share a land border with Ukraine?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) Only five

TEST – 23, Q No – 5

Which countries are in Ukraine with border?

1. Belarus

2. Moldova

3. Russia

4. Poland

5. Hungary

6. Latvia

7. Estonia

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 4, 5, 6 and 7

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

TEST – 6, Q No – 23 - Another Question w.r.t. same area in a different framing.

Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies

(b) Dragonflies

(c) Honeybees

(d) Wasps

TEST – 23, Q No – 21

Waggle dance is performed by

(a) Honey Bees

(b) Ants

(d) Bioluminescent insects

Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization?

(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’

(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems

(d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking Financial Institutions

Test No 23, Q No 45

Sterilization done by the RBI

1. helps to counter black money

2. helps to keep inflation under control

3. counters rupee depreciation

4. increase export competitiveness

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.

Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Test No 6, Q No 48

If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest.

This is because

(a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients

(b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability

(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest.

Two versions of Questions in other tests w.r.t. same area in a different framing.

With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as:

(a) capital cities

(b) ports

(d) shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

TEST – 21, Q No – 10

Which one of the following ports was known as “Poduke” to the author of ‘The Periplus of the Erythrean Sea’?

(a) Arikamedu

(b) Tamralipti

(d) Barbaricum

Read with Explanation.

In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements

(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases

(d) Successful coups

Test No 21, Q No 46

Janjaweed militias in news are active in

(a) Sudan

(b) Syria

(d) Yemen

Sudan conflict: Who are the Rapid Security Forces, up in arms against the country’s military. News Source Given in Explanation Pdf.

With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

(a) archaeological excavations

(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India

(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Test No 12, Q No 95

‘A Forgotten Empire’, written by the renowned historian Robert Sewell is about which one of the following Empires?

(a) Mauryan Empire

(b) Kushan Empire

(d) Vijayanagar Empire

Consider the following statements :

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.

2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 25, Q No 59

1. It is prepared by Biodiversity Management Committee as a convention.

2. It is a bottom-up exercise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct w.r.t. “People's Biodiversity Register”?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10.

Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes

2. The National Human Rights Commission

3. The National Law Commission

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Test 23, Q.No.32

Which of the following body was established under the 102 Constitutional Amendment Act?.

(a) GST Grievance Council

(b) National Commission for Backward Classes

(d) National Commission for Minorities

102^nd Amendment Act, 2018, granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).

Test No 25, Q No 9

Which among the following are not statutory body/(ies) in India?

1. Armed Forces Tribunal

2. Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority

3. Central Bureau of Investigation

4. Law Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Read with Explanation.

11.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Test No 1, Q No 21

Besides the Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV, there are certain other directions addressed to the state in other parts of the constitution.

Which of the following is/are not among them?

(a) None of the below.

(b) Article 351

(d) Article 350 A

Our Explanation:

• Art. 335 Part XVI- Claims of SCs and STs shall be taken into consideration for services and posts in affairs with Union or State.

Test No 1, Q No 83

It is not in Directive Principles of State Policy.

(a) Formation of co-operative societies

(b) Considering the claims of SC/ST in the making of appointments to government services

(d) Minimize the inequalities of income

12.

With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.

2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.

3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 3, Q No 71

Consider the following statements: 1.) The President can make regulations for the peace and good government of scheduled areas after consulting the Governor of the state concerned.

2.) The Governor in consultation with Chief Minister can declare that any particular act of Parliament or the State

Legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with modifications.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct with respect to Fifth Schedule?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 10, Q No 82

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared Null and void?

(a) 12th Schedule

(b) 5th Schedule

(d) 11th Schedule

13.

Consider the following pairs:

Area of conflict mentioned in news: Country where it is located

1. Donbas : Syria

2. Kachin : Ethiopia

3. Tigray : North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 14, Q No 32

The table below shows the border regions between India and its neighbor’s. Match the List.

List 1 List 2

A. Susta 1. Pakistan

B. Saltora 2. Nepal

C. Kachin 3. Bangladesh

D. New Moore 4. Myanmar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A B C D

(a) 2 1 3 4

(b) 1 2 3 4

(d) 1 2 4 3

Test No 11, Q No 29

1. Romania

2. Latvia

3. Estonia

Which of these are a part of “Bucharest Nine”?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

The B9 countries have been critical of Russia’s aggression against Ukraine since 2014, when the war in the Donbas started and Russia annexed the Crimean peninsula.

Test No 7, Q No 45

Abyei is located along the border of

(a) Armenia - Azerbaijan

(b) Ukraine - Russia

(d) Syria – Turkey

Ethiopia says Tigrayan peacekeepers victims of rebel 'propaganda' – News Source Given in Explanation Pdf.

14.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.

Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Test No 6, Q No 62

Consider the following statements:

1. The movement of the isotherms is greater over the land than it is over the oceans.

2. Coastal regions have a smaller range of temperature than do continental interiors.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 6, Q No 63

The bottom of a lake not freeze in severe winter even when the surface is all frozen. Why?

(a) The water has large specific heat

(b) The water has large latent heat of fusion

(d) The temperature of the earth at the bottom of the lake is high

15.

Consider the following statements:

1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.

2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 19, Q No 15

Consider the following statements regarding Earthquake Waves:

1. All natural earthquakes take place in the asthenosphere.

2. Body waves are faster than Surface waves and arrive first at the Surface hence they are more damaging than surface Waves.

3. S-Waves propagation reveals that the outer core of the Earth is in liquid form.

4. P- Waves propagate longitudinally while S-Waves transversally.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Read with Explanation.

Test No 6, Q No 38

Primary waves of earthquake can travel through the (a) Only solid material (b) Only Liquid material (c) Only gases material (d) Solid and liquid material.

Test No 6, Q No 59

This layer in the Earth does not transmit S-waves. (a) Crust (b) Inner core (c) Mantle

16.

‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?

(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna

(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues

(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population

Test No 17, Q No 87

Consider the following statements about Satellite DNA in Human Genome:

1. It is the non-coding region of DNA.

2. It is mainly present in heterochromatin.

3. It has long DNA sequences.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

They can contribute to evolution- Explanation Given

Test No 9, Q No 97

DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as

(a) polymorphic DNA

(b) satellite DNA

(d) single nucleotides

17.

Consider the following activities:

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively

2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime

3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 24, Q No 69

Test No 8, Q No 94

The following activities could be possibly used to reduce global warming. 1. Using giant mirrors in space 2. Firing large amount of aerosols in the atmosphere 3. Increasing the amount of iron in the ocean. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 only

Test No 7, Q No 21

The term ‘Carbon leakage’ refers to

(a) Carbon released by Developed countries beyond the legally binding limits

(b) Leakage of carbon during geological carbon sequestration.

(d) Movement of businesses from strict carbon regime to lenient carbon regime.

Test No 17, Q No 84

The techniques employed by “Solar geoengineering” include 1. Stratospheric Aerosol Injection 2. Cirrus Cloud Thinning 3. Space sunshades 4. Ambient Air Capture Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Afforestation, Biochar, Bioenergy with carbon capture and sequestration, Ambient Air Capture, Ocean Fertilization, Enhanced Weathering, Ocean Alkalinity Enhancement are Carbon Dioxide Removal (CDR) techniques.

18.

Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant Women.

2. It runs a campaign for delayed Cord clamping at the time of child birth.

3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents

4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Test No 9, Q No 61

Consider the following statements.

1. In sickle cell anaemic case red blood cells are round.

2. Sickle cell anaemia is a zoonotic disease.

3. Sickle cell anaemia is fatal.

(a) Only 1 statement is true

(b) Only 2 statements are true

(d) None of the statements is true.

Explanation – News Source Given in PDF.

In India, Under the Anemia Mukt Bharat Program, screening for hemoglobin disorders like Sickle cell anaemia is a strategy to tackle the burden of anaemia in the country.

19.

Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

(a) Australia

(b) Canada

(d) Japan

Test No 16, Q No 64

Consider the following pairs

1. Glonass : Russia

2. Galileo : China

3. BeiDou : Europe

4. GPS : Japan

(a) Only 1 pair is correct

(b) Only 2 pair are correct

(d) All the pairs are correct

Test No 16, Q No 16

Consider the following statements w.r.t. NavIC.

1. It consists of eight satellites.

2. It is less accurate than GPS.

3. It uses dual frequency bands.

Which of the statements given Is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

20.

Consider the following trees:

1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)

2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)

3. Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 7, Q No 59

Which of the following tree species can be typically found in deciduous forests in India?

1. Hurra 2. Mahua 3. Kusum 4. Semul

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Read with Explanation.

21.

Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

(a) Aluminium

(b) Copper

(d) Titanium

Test No 7, Q No 39

Which of the following substances are found in the beach sands of many parts of Kerala?

1. Ilmenite

2. Zircon

3. Silimanite

4. Tungsten

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2 only

22.

About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

(a) Argentina

(b) Botswana

(d) Kazakhstan

Read with Explanation News Source Given.

Test No 4, Q No 76

1. Cobalt

2. Copper

3. Lithium

4. Molybdenum

5. Nickel

Which of these are critical minerals for India?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Test No 15, Q No 11

Consider the following statements w.r.t. Mineral security partnership.

1. It is an initiative by the Russia to bolster critical mineral supply chains in the wake of Ukraine war.

2. India is a partner to it.

3. It is a part of a global 'China plus-one' strategy adopted post pandemic that caused massive supply-chain disruptions.

Which of the statements given is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

23.

Consider the following statements:

1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges

2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range

3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Read with Explanation News Source Given. (Table was provided with locations)

Test No 7, Q No 33

Sal forests are found in

(a) In western Ghats

(b) Northeastern valley

(d) Satpura mountains

Test No 19, Q No 68

Which of the following Biosphere Reserves is spread across three states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala?

(a) Nilgiri

(b) Agasthyamalai

(d) Both (a) and (b)

Test No 5, Q No 51

The ascending order of Tiger Reserves in India in terms of total area covered is

(a) Bor, Pench, Pakke, Srisailam

(b) Pench, Bor, Pakke, Srisailam

(d) Bor, Pakke, Pench, Srisailam

24.

With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs:

1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana

2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri

3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna

4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Test No 21, Q No 24

Devichandraguptam an d Mudrarakshasam by Vishakadutta provide details about the rise of the Guptas.

25.

With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:

1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.

2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics.

3. Stupa was a votive and structure in commemorative Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 11, Q No 41

Which one of the following, according to the Buddha, would lead to ‘Nirvana’?

(a) To be constantly in the state of a stithaprajna

(b) Pursuit of the ashtanga marga

(d) Adoration of stupa

Stupa is a mound like (hemispherical) burial structure containing relics of Buddhist monks.

Test No 23, Q No 31

Consider the following pairs w.r.t. architectural features of a stupa:

Anda	Mound Covering Buddha's remains
Medhi	Square railing or fence that surround the mound
Toranas	Gateways
Chattra	Relics chamber

How many pairs given above are Correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) All the pairs

Test No 25, Q No 98

The Stupa is believed to be built by Ashoka and later rebuilt in the Gupta period. It marks the spot of the first sermon of Buddha, given to his five followers. The Stupa is housed in a deer park.’ The stupa in the description is

(a) Sanchi Stupa

(b) Dhamek Stupa

(d) Kesari Stupa

26.

In essence, what does Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(d) Equality before law

Test No 20, Q No 3 – Read with Explanation

Consider the following statements:

1. Under due process of law, it is the legal requirement that the state must respect all of the legal rights that are owed to a person and laws that state enact must conform to the laws of the land like – fairness, fundamental rights, liberty, etc.

2. Under procedure established by law, the validity of a law that has prescribed a procedure cannot be questioned on the ground that the law is unreasonable, unfair, or unjust.

3. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution now reads: “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to due process of law.”

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

27.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Test No 6, Q No 55 – Read with Explanation

The theory of continental drift is supported by

1. similarities between the coastline of South America and Africa

2. the similarity of rocks of Central Africa, southern India, Brazil and Australia

3. evidence of fossils

4. survival of marsupials in Australia

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

28.

Consider the following statements:

1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.

2. Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.

3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.

4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Test No 17, Q No 60 (Multiple Questions)

1. It is a medicinal ginger.

2. It grows on wood-based substrate only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct w.r.t. “Ganoderma Lucidum”?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation:

Ganoderma lucidum is a medicinal mushroom in use for centuries to heal diseases like diabetes, cancer, inflammation, and ulcer as well as bacterial and skin infections. In India, however, the potential of the fungus is still being explored.

29.

Consider the following:

1. Aerosols

2. Foam agents

3. Fire retardants

4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Test No 25, Q No 68

The major aerosol pollutant in jet emissions is

(a) Sulphur dioxide

(b) Carbon monoxide

(d) Fluorocarbon

Test No 16, Q No 9

Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used 1. in the production of plastic foams 2. in the production of tubeless tyres 3. in cleaning certain electronic components 4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

30.

Consider the following pairs:

Regions often mentioned in news Reason for being in news

1. North Kivu and Ituri: War between Armenia and Azerbaijan

2. Nagorno-Karabakh: Insurgency in Mozambique

3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 23, Q No 44

Consider the following statements:

1. Nagorno-Karabakh region is surrounded by Armenia on its west and Iran on its north.

2. Armenia shares a border with the Caspian Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 15, Q No 20

Where is Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant?

(a) Iran

(b) Russia

(d) North Korea

31.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.

2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.

3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 8, Q No 19

For which of the following crops Minimum Support Price is announced by the government of India?

1. Jowar 2. Copra

3. Groundnut 4. Sugarcane

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Our Explanation:

3. Oilseeds (8) - groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and niger seed

32.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.

Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the incorrect explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Test No 18, Q No 62

Consider the following statements:

1. The Golan Heights is a strategic plateau that Israel captured from Jordan.

2. The West Bank is sandwiched between Israel and Jordan.

3. The Gaza Strip is located between Israel and Egypt.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Golan Heights profile – NEWS SOURCE GIVEN.

33.

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Test No 1, Q No 42, Test No 1, Q No 88 and Test No 25, Q No 50

Consider the passage given below: "None of the Acts and Regulations specified in this Schedule nor any of the provision thereof shall be deemed to be void, or ever to have become void, on the ground that such Act, Regulation or provision is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by, any provisions of this part, and notwithstanding any judgment, decree or order of any court or tribunal to the contrary, each of the said Acts and Regulations shall, subject to the power of any competent Legislature to repeal or amend it, continues in force". The reference here is to the

(a) Seventh Schedule

(b) Eighth Schedule

(d) Tenth Schedule

First amendment of Indian Constitution. The 9^th Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts and was added by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.

34.

Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

(b) The United Nations Environment Programme

(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Test No 10, Q No 3 (ALSO MANY QUETSIONS)

1. Indian bullfrog 2. Charru muss 3. Senna spectabilis Which of the above is/are invasive species? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature, C. carpio is the third most frequently introduced species worldwide and on every continent where it has been introduced it has reduced water quality and degraded aquatic habitats.

35.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-1: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect. but Statement-II is correct

Test No 15, Q No 38 (NEWS SOURCE LINK WITH EXPLANATION)

Justice Amitava Roy Committee, was constituted in relation to

(a) Prison reforms

(b) GM Crops

(d) Juvenile Delinquency

36.

With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.

2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.

3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 20, Q No 59

The Green Hydrogen Policy has been introduced to enable India to become energy independent by

India’s plan to develop green hydrogen – NEWS SOURCE GIVEN.

Test No 3, Q No 1

Which of the following is manufactured using ‘Haber-Bosch’ process?

(a) Liquid Nano Urea (b) Ammonia

1. Blue Hydrogen is produced from fossil fuels.

2. Blue Hydrogen emits zero carbon dioxide. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Green hydrogen – NEWS SOURCE GIVEN.

37.

Consider the following heavy industries:

1. Fertilizer plants

2. Oil refineries

3. Steel plants

Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

SAME AS ABOVE.

38.

Consider the following statements:

1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.

2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.

3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Read with Explanation

Test No 17, Q No 34

Consider the following statements.

1. Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms that can replicate only inside the living cells of an organism.

2. Viruses have no ribosomes while bacteria have ribosomes.

3. Viruses have RNA or DNA while bacteria have only DNA.

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Test No 8, Q No 6

Alcanivorax bacteria and Methylocella silvestris are most noted for

(a) Bioremediation of oil spills

(b) Manufacture of Bioplastics

(d) Arsenic absorption

Methylocella silvestris is a type of bacteria that live in acidic soils.

39.

Consider the following statements about G-20:

1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.

2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 23, Q No 62 – Read with Explanation

The theme of India’s G20 Presidency - “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” or “One Earth · One Family · One Future” - is drawn from

(a) Maha Upanishad

(b) Rig Veda

(d) Vinaya Pitaka

As G20 Presidency, India can foreground its belief in a human-centric approach to technology, and facilitate greater knowledge-sharing in priority areas like digital public infrastructure, financial inclusion, and tech-enabled development in sectors ranging from agriculture to education. (SOURCE LINK GIVEN).

Test No 13, Q No 98 – Read with Explanation

Currently Troika of G20 consists of

1. Indonesia

2. Italy

3. India

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Test No 4, Q No 99

Which of the statements given with reference to G20, below is/are correct?. 1. It is an informal group of 19 countries and the European Union. 2. It is headquartered in Belgium. 3. The members represent about two-thirds of the world’s population. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

40.

Consider the following markets:

1. Government Bond Market

2. Call Money Market

3. Treasury Bill Market

4. Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Test No 24, Q No 10

Consider the following statements about the Call money market:

1. Call money markets is a market for uncollateralized lending and borrowing of funds.

2. This market is predominantly overnight and is open for participation to scheduled Commercial banks only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 10, Q No 43

Which of the following are true about Indian Money Market?

1. It provides a key link in the operations of monetary policy to financial markets.

2. It provides funds in noninflationary way to the government.

3. Treasury Bill is a money market instrument.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

41.

Consider the following pairs:

Objects in space: Description

1. Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space

2. Nebulae: Stars which brighten and dim periodically

3. Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test 2, Q No 85 – Read with Explanation

“Black widow binary” seen in news refer to

(a) A Neutron Star

(b) A Nano Galaxy

(d) An Exo planet

Normally, pulsars spin down and die quickly as they burn off a huge amount of energy, but every so often, a passing star can give a pulsar new life.

Test 10, Q No 84

“Local Bubble” phenomenon is observed in

(a) Oceans

(b) Deserts

(d) Arctic region

42.

Consider the following pairs:

Port Well known as

1. Kamarajar Port: First major port in India registered as a company

2. Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India

3. Visakhapatnam: Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pair

(d) None of the pairs

Test 7, Q No 10 – Read with Explanation

Identify the correct pairs:

Ports Characteristics

1. Kandla : Natural Harbour

2. Tuticorin : Tidal port

3. Kolkata : Inland Riverine port

4. Visakhapatnam : Deepest landlocked port

(a) Only two pairs are correct

(b) Only one pair is correct

(d) None of the pairs is correct

43.

Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans

(d) Rann of Kutch

Test 18, Q No 61 – read with explanation

1. They are found in the salt marshes of the Kutch district of Gujarat.

2. They are classified as Endangered under the IUCN Red List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct w.r.t. Kharai Camels?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

They are a rare breed of camel found in the salt marshes of the Kutch district of Gujarat.

44.

With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.

(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.

(d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Test 6, Q No 4 & Test 19, Q No 67

Which of the below is/are incorrect?

(a) The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs both the infrared part and ultraviolet part of the solar radiation.

(b) Among Green House Gases, only water vapor has the ability to absorb both incoming UV and outgoing infrared radiation.

(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Test 6, Q No 79 (read with Explanation)

The main reason that the earth experiences highest temperatures in the subtropics in the northern hemisphere rather than at the equator is

(a) Subtropical areas tend to have less cloud cover than equatorial areas.

(b) Subtropical areas have longer day hours in the summer than the equatorial.

(d) Subtropical areas are nearer to the oceanic areas than the equatorial locations.

45.

Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day

Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Test 1, Q No 81

The original Preamble, adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, declared India a (a) Sovereign Democratic Republic (b) Independent Sovereign Democratic Republic (c) Sovereign Socialist Democratic Republic (d) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Preamble to the Constitution of India was adopted on 26 November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly and came into effect on 26 January 1950, celebrated as the Republic Day of India.

Test 11, Q No 17

Which one of the following statements regarding the Constituent assembly is not Correct?

(a) The constitution of a constituent assembly was an integral part of the cabinet mission plan

(b) The objective resolution adopted by the constituent assembly was later incorporated into the preamble of the constitution both in its spirit and as far as possible, the language

(d) The rulers of Indian states who acceded to the union as provided in the constitution accepted the premise that

sovereignty resided in their people- not in themselves

46.

Consider the following statements :

Statement-1: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.

Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-1

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(d) Statement-1 is incorrect Statement-II is correct

Test 9, Q No 47

Which of the following is/are done by RBI, if it goes for the expansionist monetary policy? 1. Reduce statutory bank reserves. 2. Purchasing government securities. 3. Decreasing the discount rate. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only

Test 15, Q No 9

Which of the following is/are true?. (a) The Contractionary monetary policy is dear money policy. (b) Expansionary monetary policy increases aggregate demand. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

47.

By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

(a) The Regulating Act

(b) The Pitt’s India Act

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Test 24, Q No 98

Consider the following statements about the Charter Act, 1833:

1. It made Lord Cornwallis the first Governor-General of India.

2. It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.

3. It attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

48.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: According to the United Nations World Water Development Report, 2022′, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.

Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Test 16, Q No 52 – Read with Explanation – News source link given

World Water Development Report is published by

(a) UNEP

(b) UNESCO

(d) Green Peace

49.

Consider the following pairs:

Site: Well known for

1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine

2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine

3. Sittanavasal: Jain cave shrine

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test 21, Q No 7 – Read with Explanation

Consider the following statements regarding the Garuda pillar: 1. It was built by Ashoka. 2. It is near to the Sanchi Stupa. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

The Heliodorus pillar is a stone column that was erected around 110 BCE in central India in Vidisha near modern Besnagar, by Heliodorus, a Greek ambassador of the Indo-Greek king Antialcidas to the court of the Sunga king Bhagabhadra.

50.

Consider the investments in the following assets:

1. Brand recognition

2. Inventory

3. Intellectual property

4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Test 18, Q No 34 – Read with Explanation

Which of the following is not a feature of human capital? (a) It is intangible (b) It is not sold in the market (c) It is perfectly mobile (d) It is inseparable from its owner

51.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement-I1: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Test 3, Q No 6 – Read with Explanation

Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO 2 emissions in a given year. (b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels. (c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place. (d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.

Test 6, Q No 58 – Read with Explanation

Green Economy includes (1) Carbon free economy (2) Resource efficient economy (3) Socially inclusive economy (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Test 8, Q No 82 – Read with Explanation

Consider the following statements with reference to Carbon Border Adjustment Tax: 1. It is an import duty on goods from countries with less strict climate policies. 2. The concept of the tax has been proposed by the United States. (a) 1 is true (b) 2 is true (c) 1 and 2 are true (d) Neither 1 Nor 2 is true

52.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits (InvITs) distributed to their investors is in Infrastructure Investment Trusts exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I -II is correct but Statement is incorrect

Test 8, Q No 24 – Read with Explanation

Which of the following statements are correct w.r.t. National Monetization Pipeline?

1. Real Estate Investment Trusts and Infrastructure Investment Trusts are the key structures used to monetise assets in the roads and power sectors.

2. It will transfer the ownership of projects to private sector and use the funds so generated for infrastructure creation across the country.

3. Roads, railways and power sector assets will comprise over 66% of the total estimated value of the assets to be monetized.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

53.

With reference to India’s projects connectivity, consider the following statements:

1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.

2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.

3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test 23, Q No 64 – Read with Explanation

Chindwin River basin is in (a) Myanmar (b) China (c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal

Note: India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway

East-West Economic Corridor

54.

Consider the following statements:

1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.

2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.

3. Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test 19, Q No 6 – Read with Explanation

1. Wular lake 2. Dal lake 3. Loktak lake 4. Pangong Tso lake Which of these lakes is/are freshwater lakes?. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Test 7, Q No 57 – Read with Explanation

Which of the following is/are not the Vindhyan Rivers?. 1. Ken 2. Betwa 3. Chambhal (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) None of these.

From the Himalayas side, rivers like the Gomati, the the Sarayu, the Gandak and the Kosi join the Ganga in the states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

Test 24, Q No 65 – Read with Explanation

The Gharial Reserves of India are located in 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Rajasthan (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Gandak river became the second successful breeding site for gharials in India after the Chambal sanctuary.

55.

Consider the following dynasties:

1. Hoysala

2. Gahadavala

3. Kakatiya

4. Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test 12, Q No 83 – Read with Explanation

1. Raja Krishna Dev of the Kakatiya dynasty constructed the Golkonda Fort.

2. Qutb Shahi Tombs are built in Persian, Hindu and Pathani styles of architecture.

Which of the above is/are correct?.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 1

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test 12, Q No 21 – Read with Explanation

Who had stamped the figure of Goddess Lakshmi on his gold coins and had his name inscribed on it?.

(a) Mahmud of Ghazni.

(b) Muhammad of Ghori

(d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Muhammad Ghori is known to have adopted the seated goddess Lakshmi type of the coins of Gahadavalas/ Rajputs for circulation in the Gahadavala territories. He got stamped the figure of Goddess Lakshmi on his coins and had his name inscribed in Nagari Characters. B

Test 21, Q No 78 – Read with Explanation

With reference to the historical Golconda fort, consider the following statements: 1. The fort was built by the Bahamani dynasty of Golconda. 2. The world-famous Kohinoor diamond belongs to the region of Golconda. 3. The fort is known for its unique acoustic system to communicate sounds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Test 24, Q No 13 – Read with Explanation

With reference to the Hoysalas temple architecture, consider the following statements: 1. The Chalukyas are known to develop the Vesara temple architectural style. 2. A raised platform or Jagati was used for the purpose of a Pradakshinapatha. 3. Two or more Vimanas with similar style and height were built. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

56.

‘Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects’. The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(d) Vaishnavism

Test 11, Q No 46 – Read with Explanation

Which of the following philosophies is associated with Jainism? (a) Syadvada (b) Yogacara (c) Madhyamika (d) Sunyavada

57.

In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghika, located?

(a) Andhra

(b) Gandhara

(d) Magadha

Test 21, Q No 12 – Read with Explanation

Consider the following statements: 1. They ruled over the Deccan and Central India. 2. They issued lead coins in large number. 3. They made land grants to the Brahmanas and the Buddhist monks. These statements best describe (a) Rashtrakutas (b) Ikshvakus (c) Chalukyas (d) Satavahanas

Test 21, Q No 60 – Read with Explanation

1. Gautamiputra Satakarni was the founder of the Satavahana Dynasty. 2. The Nanaghat inscriptions provide specific information on the Satavahanas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

58.

Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon

(b) Nigeria

(d) Uganda

Test 23, Q No 12 – Read with Explanation

Equator passes through

1. Brazil

2. Kenya

3. Indonesia

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome and Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia, and Kiribati are all located on the Equator.

59.

Consider the following:

1. Demographic performance

2. Forest and ecology

3. Governance reforms

4. Stable government

5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Test 2, Q No 87 – Read with Explanation

Which of the following statements are correct about “Special Category Status” to states?. 1. There is no provision of Special Category Status in Indian Constitution. 2. It is based upon Gadgil formula. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

60.

Which one of the following explains the practice of “Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?

(a) Kings employing women bodyguards.

(b) Learned persona assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters

(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Test 21, Q No –15 Read with Explanation

Identify the incorrect statement of the following regarding Sangam literature. (a) Tamil traditions tell us of three Sangams but some hold that there was only one Sangam. C B (b) No work belongs to the first two Sangams are said to have survived. (c) Sangam literature is grouped in eight more or less schematic anthologies and the last group (ninth) pattuppatu (Ten Idylls) completed the tale. (d) The works are not historical chronicles but they contain revealing information about the contemporary society.

Test 23, Q No –21 Read with Explanation

1. The Agam talks about family, love life, the nature-oriented lifestyle and revolves around the women of the society. 2. The Puram deals with the men, their heroism in the battle fields, warfare, seafaring and trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct regarding Sangam Literature? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

61.

‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go

(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat

(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Test 2, Q No 94 – Read with Explanation – News source link given

1. Each organism has only one genome. 2. Exons contain the nucleotides that directly encode for proteins. Which of the statements given above is/are correct w.r.t. “Genome”?. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

https://iasgoogle.com/editorial_detail/what-a-truly-complete-human-genome-tells-us

Metagenomics is thestudy of microbes in their natural living environment, which involves the complex microbial communities in which they usually exist.

Test 12, Q No 98 – Read with Explanation – News source link given

Transposons can be used during which one of the following? (a) Polymerase chain reaction (b) Gene silencing (c) Autoradiography (d) Gene sequencing

62.

Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.

Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

Test No 15, Q No 78

Consider the following statements.

1. Current colour scheme of Indian National flag was adopted in Karachi Session of Indian National congress.

2. The National Flag of India was adopted in its present form on 26th January 1950.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Salient Features of Flag Code of India, 2002 – PIB News Source Given.

63.

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.

3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.

4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Test No 13, Q No 45

The electoral college for the Indian Presidential election held most recently comprised of elected members of

1. Rajya Sabha

2. Lok Sabha

3. Assemblies Jammu & Kashmir

4. Assemblies Delhi, Puducherry

(a) 1, 2

(b) 1, 2, 3

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Note:

https://prsindia.org/theprsblog/how-india-will-elect-its-next-president

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1842456

Read with Explanation.

Two versions of Questions in other tests w.r.t. same area in a different framing.

64.

Consider the following statements with reference to India :

1. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006′, the medium enterprises are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs.15 crore and Rs.25 crore.

2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 20, Q No 57

Consider the following w.r.t. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC):

1. It has the Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PIRP), also called ‘pre-packs’ as an insolvency resolution mechanism for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

2. It lacks provisions to deal with cross border insolvency.

3. Growing haircuts contribute to its success to achieve its goals.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Read with Explanation. PIB Source Given.

65.

With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.

2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time- frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 24, Q No 3

Banks in India have raised their disintermediation concerns over RBI’s digital currency plans.

What does “Disintermediation of Banks” mean?

(a) Increase in deposits with the banks, leading to higher interest cost.

(b) Increase in loans given by the banks, leading to higher pressure on the Balance Sheet.

(d) Decrease in deposits with the banks, accompanied by decrease in credit creation

Read with Explanation. NEWS Source Given.

66.

Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.

2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.

3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 22, Q No 91

The Global Environment Facility (GEF) is a financial mechanism for the following international environmental conventions

1. Minamata Convention on Mercury

2. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants

3. United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity

4. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification

5. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

(a) 3, 4 and 5

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 4, and 5

Test No 22, Q No 77

E-waste consists of

1. Indium

2. Gallium

3. Mercury

4. Arsenic

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Test No 23, Q No 29

Which of the following heavy metals are found in fly ash?. 1. Nickel 2. Cadmium 3. Arsenic 4. Chromium (a)1, 2 and 4 Only (b)1, 2 and 3 Only (c) 1 and 2 Only (d)1, 2, 3 and 4

Many Questions Combination.

67.

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.

2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.

3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

MULTIPLE QUESTIONS COMBINED

Test No 18, Q No 69

Which of the following statements are incorrect?

I. Appropriation Bill cannot be amended while the Finance Bill can be amended.

II. Finance Bill cannot be amended while Appropriation Bill can be amended.

III. Same procedure governs both the Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill.

IV. Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill are governed by different procedures.

V. Appropriation bill cannot be rejected by the Rajya Sabha while Finance Bill can be rejected by it.

(a) II and IV

(b) II, IV and V

(d) I, III and V

Test No 2, Q No 48

Provisions of which of the following matters qualify a Bill to be deemed to be a Money Bill?

1. The receipt of money on account of the public account of India.

2. The custody of the Contingency Fund of India.

3. Alteration of any tax

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

68.

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India took advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Test No 20, Q No 39

Consider the following in respect of Production Linked Incentive (PLI) schemes in India:

1. It is aimed at boosting the manufacturing sector and reducing imports.

2. It guarantees 10-15% incentives to companies for the step-by-step sale of manufactured goods in the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

What is PLI scheme, and which sectors will be under it? – NEWS SOURCE GIVEN.

Test No 20, Q No 47

Consider the following statement:

1. The USA remained the top export destination for India in 2022 followed by UAE and the Netherlands.

2. Share of China and USA in total import trade has risen in 2022 since last year.

3. China, UAE, USA, Russia, and Saudi Arabia have a joint share of 40 percent of the total imports of India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Goods exports grew 6%, imports 16.5% this fiscal – News Source Link given.

69.

Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

(a) Devaraya 1

(b) Mallikarjuna

(d) Virupaksha

Test No 21, Q No 67 – Read with Explanation (Also linked in other questions).

To whom did Krishanadevaraya gave permission to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Danish (b) Huns (c) Mongols (d) Portuguese

Portuguese governor Afonso de Albuquerque asked Krishna Devaraya for permission to build a fort at Bhatkal.

70.

Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’.

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest

2. hunting is not allowed in such area

3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce

4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?.

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Test No 6, Q No 12 – Read with Explanation.

Which of the following are the recognized categories of the Protected Areas in India?

1. National Parks

2. Wildlife Sanctuaries

3. Conservation Reserves

4. Community Reserves

(a) Only 1 & 2

(b) 1 & 2 in some states and 1, 2, 3 in some states

(d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

Test No 8, Q No 1

What is “Bugun Liocichla” that is seen in news?.

(a) An Extinct mammal

(b) An Extinct butterfly

(d) A critically-endangered reptile

Note:

News Source link given.

71.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the `Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Test 24, Q No 36 – Read with Explanation

Which of the below is/are true w.r.t. “Constitutionalism”?

1. The antithesis of constitutionalism is despotism.

2. A written Constitution is a guarantee for Constitutionalism.

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72.

Consider the following statements:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.

2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Multiple Questions – Combinations.

73.

Consider the following statements :

1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.

2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Test No 16, Q No 31

Consider the following statements w.r.t. Agni 5.

1. It uses a three-stage solid fuelled engine.

2. It is the longest of the Agni series.

3. It is a fire-and-forget missile.

Which of the statements given is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Test No 23, Q No 38

Which of the below is/are true w.r.t. “Pralay Missile”?

1. It is a quasi-ballistic weapon.

2. It has a high trajectory.

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

74.

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Action: The Act under which it is covered

1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military Act, 1923 uniforms: The Official Secrets

2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872

3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others: The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Test No 4, Q No 79 (WITH EXPLANATION)

Consider the following agitations

1. Agitations against the discriminatory arms act.

2. Agitations against the draconian vernacular press act.

3. Agitations against the Simon commission.

The political organization “Indian Association” was involved in which of the above agitations during the British era?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

https://iasgoogle.com/editorial_detail/gun-laws-in-countries-outside-the-u-s

75.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.

Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Read with Explanation:

Test No 7, Q No 92

Pitchblende is found in

1. Chhattisgarh 2. Andhra Pradesh 3. Rajasthan

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Pitchblende, also known by the name uraninite, is a mineral comprised mainly of oxides of the element uranium, UO₂, and UO₃. It is the primary ore of uranium.

Test No 17, Q No 97

Thorium mining produces a single pure isotope, whereas the mixture of natural uranium isotopes must be enriched [enriching is costly] to function in most common reactor designs.

76.

Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese?

(a) Ahmad Shah

(b) Mahmud Begarha

(d) Muhammad Shah

77.

Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque

2. Malabar Civet

3. Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

78.

Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.

2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.

3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

79.

Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat

(b) Orangutan

(d) Sloth bear

80.

Consider the following statements:

1. India has more arable area than China.

2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.

3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

81.

Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?

(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender. their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers

(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

82.

Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

1. Affordable housing

2. Mass rapid transport

3. Health care

4. Renewable energy

How many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

83.

With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.

2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.

3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

84.

Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:

1. Major Dhyan Chand :For Khel Ratna Award the Most spectacular and outstanding performance

2. Arjuna Award sportsperson over period of last four years : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson

3. Dronacharya Award: To honor eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons teams

4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sports persons even after retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

85.

Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:

1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.

2. The official mascot was named Thambi’.

3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.

4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

86.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.

Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

87.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.

Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct

88.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’.

Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

89.

Consider the following statements:

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union

2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities

3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

90.

Consider the following statements:

1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.

2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.

3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

91.

With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :

1. None of them uses seawater.

2. None of them are set up in water-stressed districts.

3. None of them is privately owned.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

92.

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Yojana:

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.

2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.

3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.

4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

four

93.

Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon fibers are used in the Manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.

2. Carbon fibers once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

94.

Consider the following actions:

1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously

2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive

3. Detection of the tilt of the mart phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.

In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

95.

With reference to the role of bio filters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:

1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.

2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.

3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

96.

In the context of finance, the term “beta” refers to

(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms

(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward

(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market

97.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.

2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.

3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

98.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

99.

Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.

2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.

3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

100.

Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

(a) Angola

(b) Costa Rica

(d) Somalia

All our questions must be read with Our Explanations given in the Class and our explanation PDF file.

POSTED ON 28-05-2023 BY ADMIN

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